You’ve been tasked with installing a Wi-Fi network in a 100-meter-long, 25-meter-wide building. You will be employing 802.11ac due of cost reasons. How many wireless access points will be required at least?
Four
Three
TWO
Six
To cover a 100-meter-long, 25-meter-wide building with 802.11ac Wi-Fi, three access points are typically sufficient. 802.11ac, being a high-speed standard, has a reasonable coverage range indoors, roughly up to 30 meters in optimal conditions. To ensure comprehensive coverage and account for signal degradation and obstructions, placing access points strategically—such as one near each end of the building and one in the center—should provide robust coverage across the entire space. Four access points would be excessive and unnecessary, and two access points may risk insufficient coverage in certain areas of the building. Six access points would be overkill and could lead to potential interference and management complexities.
The SSH protocol uses which of the following port?
23
25
22
21
The SSH protocol uses port 22, which is specifically assigned for secure shell communications by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). This port is designated for SSH to ensure encrypted, secure remote access and command execution. In contrast, port 23 is used by the Telnet protocol, which is less secure; port 25 is assigned to the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for email routing; and port 21 is used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) for file transfers. Thus, port 22 is uniquely suited for SSH due to its designation for secure, encrypted communication.
What server would act as a central repository for documents and provide internal users with network shared file storage?
Proxy server
FTP server.
Web server.
File server.
A File server is the correct choice for acting as a central repository for documents and providing internal users with network shared file storage because it is specifically designed to store, manage, and share files over a network. Unlike a Proxy server, which handles requests between clients and other servers to provide anonymity or security, or an FTP server, which is focused on file transfers via the FTP protocol, a File server offers a centralized location for users to access and collaborate on shared files. Similarly, a Web server is dedicated to serving web pages and web applications rather than managing file storage. Thus, the File server is uniquely suited for the purpose of centralized document storage and sharing within a network.
Which statement about DNS servers is INCORRECT?
There is a setting in lP configuration to identify the DNS server to use.
AAAA DNS records identify IPv6 addresses.
They translate IP addresses to domain names like Sybex.com.
A records identify IPv4 addresses
The incorrect statement is “They translate IP addresses to domain names like Sybex.com.” DNS servers actually perform the reverse function—they translate domain names into IP addresses, not the other way around. Specifically, DNS servers resolve domain names like Sybex.com into their corresponding IP addresses to facilitate network communication. The statement about setting DNS servers in IP configuration is correct because configuring a device’s network settings includes specifying which DNS servers to use. AAAA DNS records do identify IPv6 addresses, and A records are used for identifying IPv4 addresses, which are also accurate statements about DNS functionality.
Which Internet appliance is used to spread incoming traffic over many resources, such as web servers?
Load balancers.
Proxy servers
Spam gateways.
UTM device.
A load balancer is the correct choice because it is specifically designed to distribute incoming traffic across multiple resources, such as web servers, to ensure no single server becomes overwhelmed, thereby enhancing performance and reliability. In contrast, proxy servers act as intermediaries between clients and servers to control and monitor network traffic, but do not inherently balance the load. Spam gateways are focused on filtering and managing unsolicited emails, and UTM (Unified Threat Management) devices provide comprehensive security features like firewall, antivirus, and intrusion prevention but do not specialize in traffic distribution. Thus, load balancers are uniquely suited for the task of spreading traffic across multiple resources.
You work for a school district as a network administrator. The district is expected to provide Internet connection to students while simultaneously protecting the network and students from malicious network traffic and unsuitable websites. What kind of server do you need to set up?
File server.
Web server.
Proxy server
FTP server.
A proxy server is the most suitable choice for providing Internet access to students while protecting the network and filtering unsuitable content. A proxy server acts as an intermediary between users and the Internet, allowing you to monitor and control web traffic. It can block access to specific websites, filter content, and prevent malicious traffic from reaching your network, thereby enhancing security and managing internet use effectively. In contrast, a file server primarily stores and manages files, a web server hosts websites and serves web pages, and an FTP server is used for transferring files over the Internet. None of these servers provide the necessary features for controlling and securing Internet access in the way that a proxy server does.
When configuring your network, you enabled your clients to automatically get IP addressing information from a DHCP server. You set the range of numbers that it can assign from 192.168.100.11 to 192.168.100.211. What is the name of this group of assignable numbers?
Leases
APIPA
Scope
Reservations
The term “Scope” is correct because it defines the range of IP addresses that a DHCP server is authorized to assign to clients on a network. In this case, the scope is the range from 192.168.100.11 to 192.168.100.211. “Leases” refers to the temporary assignment of IP addresses to clients within the scope, rather than the range itself. “APIPA” (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is used for automatic IP address assignment when a DHCP server is unavailable, and it typically provides a range of 169.254.x.x addresses, not the range defined in the scope. “Reservations” are specific IP addresses within the scope reserved for particular devices, rather than the entire range of assignable addresses.
You work for a tech support company, and a customer contacted you to report a problem, something about a duplicate IP address. What was causing them to receive this message?
A PC is manually configured with an IP that is not in the DHCP scope.
A PC is manually configured with an IP that is in the DHCP scope.
None of the PCs have been manually configured.
All hosts on a network must have a unique IP address,
A PC receiving a duplicate IP address message is likely because it has been manually configured with an IP address that falls within the DHCP scope, which is a range of addresses managed by the DHCP server for automatic assignment. When another device on the network is assigned the same IP address by the DHCP server, a conflict occurs, resulting in the duplicate IP address error. The other options are incorrect because manually configuring an IP outside the DHCP scope typically avoids conflicts, having no manually configured PCs means no such issue arises, and all hosts needing unique IP addresses is a general rule but doesn’t directly explain the specific conflict caused by overlapping DHCP and static IP assignments.
Your friend owns a restaurant and he offers free Wi-Fi to his customers. However, he has just realized that the Wi-Fi was not working. It appeared to work for those who have already connected before but not for those who are attempting to connect. What setting on the router can be changed to release an IP address and make it available to other users after a couple of hours?
MAC address filtering.
DHCP lease duration.
SSID broadcast.
Port forwarding.
The DHCP lease duration setting on a router controls how long an IP address is assigned to a device before it needs to be renewed. Setting this duration to a shorter time (e.g., a couple of hours) ensures that IP addresses are released and made available for new users after the lease expires, which helps address the issue of the Wi-Fi not working for new connections. The other settings are not relevant to this issue: MAC address filtering restricts network access based on device hardware addresses, SSID broadcast determines if the network name is visible to others, and port forwarding directs specific types of network traffic to certain devices but does not affect IP address assignment.
One of your network users must work from his workplace remotely on a highly confidential assignment. Because his team is concerned about security, they contact you, the leader of the IT department, to see what can be done. What would you put in place between this network user and the company server to ensure secure communications?
SDN
SRAM
VPN
VLAN
A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the correct choice for ensuring secure communications between a remote user and the company server because it creates an encrypted tunnel over the internet, protecting the data from unauthorized access and eavesdropping. This encryption ensures that the highly confidential assignment remains secure even while transmitted over potentially insecure networks. In contrast, SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is more about network management and control rather than encryption, SRAM (Static Random-Access Memory) is a type of memory with no relevance to secure communications, and VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) helps segment networks but does not inherently provide encryption for data in transit. Thus, a VPN specifically addresses the need for secure, encrypted communication.
The senior network administrator is having difficulty configuring company network devices spread across multiple cities. It’s difficult because they have to be on-site for each building’s network infrastructure. What is the most cost-effective solution?
Employ network administrators at each building.
Train a local sales associate.
Go to a flat network.
Employ a cloud-based network controller.
Employing a cloud-based network controller is the most cost-effective solution because it allows centralized management of network devices across multiple locations without the need for on-site presence. This approach eliminates the need for employing additional network administrators at each building or training local sales associates, both of which could be costly and inefficient. A cloud-based controller offers remote configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting capabilities, reducing travel and labor costs. In contrast, going to a flat network is impractical as it lacks scalability and security for complex, multi-site environments, making it unsuitable for handling diverse and geographically dispersed network infrastructures effectively.
What form of DNS record entry can be used for incoming mail load balancing?
DX
TXT
AAAA
MX
The MX (Mail Exchange) DNS record is used for incoming mail load balancing because it specifies the mail servers responsible for receiving email for a domain. By setting multiple MX records with different priorities, administrators can distribute incoming email traffic across several servers, balancing the load and enhancing reliability. In contrast, TXT records are used for various types of textual information, such as SPF or DKIM settings, but they do not handle email routing. AAAA records are for mapping domain names to IPv6 addresses and are unrelated to mail handling. DX records, although part of some DNS specifications, are not commonly used and do not pertain to mail routing or load balancing.
Your IT team disabled numerous ports on the external firewall due to a recent security compromise. Users can no longer access websites by URLs, but they can do so via IP addresses. What port(s) must the IT team reopen in order to provide Internet access via URLS?
80
67/68
53
20/21
Port 53 must be reopened because it is used for DNS (Domain Name System) services, which are essential for translating domain names (URLs) into IP addresses that computers can understand. Without DNS, users can only access websites through direct IP addresses because their systems cannot resolve domain names to the corresponding IP addresses. Ports 80 and 20/21 are related to HTTP and FTP traffic respectively, and while they are crucial for web and file transfer services, they do not handle the resolution of domain names. Ports 67/68 are used for DHCP, which helps in assigning IP addresses to devices on a network but does not affect DNS resolution.
A DNS AAAA address is what kind of address?
MAC
IPv4
Physical
IPV6
A DNS AAAA address is an IPv6 address. This is because the AAAA record type in DNS is specifically used to map domain names to IPv6 addresses, which are the next-generation addresses designed to replace IPv4 due to its limited address space. IPv4 addresses, by contrast, are represented by an AAAA record type, and MAC addresses, which are hardware addresses used in network interfaces, and physical addresses, which are not related to IP addressing, do not apply here. IPv6 addresses, on the other hand, use a 128-bit address space allowing for a vastly larger number of unique addresses, making them suitable for modern internet requirements.
What is the name of the DNS record that contains a list of users (IP addresses) who are authorized to send email on behalf of a domain?
SPF
A
DKIM
DMARC
SPF (Sender Policy Framework) is the correct DNS record for specifying which IP addresses are authorized to send email on behalf of a domain. It works by listing the IP addresses or hostnames allowed to send emails, helping to prevent unauthorized use of the domain for sending spam or phishing emails. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) is used for email authentication by attaching a digital signature to emails, and DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) provides policies for handling email authentication failures and reporting. Unlike SPF, DKIM and DMARC do not specifically list authorized senders but rather work in conjunction with SPF to enhance email security.
Which network segmentation strategy minimizes broadcast domains while also adding a protection layer between users on the same network?
VLAN
VPN
SQL
UPS
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is the correct choice because it effectively minimizes broadcast domains and enhances network security by logically segmenting a single physical network into multiple isolated virtual networks. This isolation prevents broadcast traffic from spanning across VLANs, reducing congestion and improving performance. Additionally, VLANs add a protection layer by segregating users into different virtual networks, which prevents unauthorized access to resources and sensitive data between users on the same physical network. In contrast, VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) provide secure connections over public networks but do not address local broadcast domain segmentation, SQL (Structured Query Language) is a database query language with no relevance to network segmentation, and UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is a power backup solution unrelated to network segmentation or security.
What network is commonly regarded as being contained within a single office or building?
MAN
PAN
WAN
LAN
A LAN (Local Area Network) is commonly regarded as being contained within a single office or building because it is specifically designed to connect computers and devices within a limited geographic area, such as an office, school, or home. LANs enable high-speed data transfer and resource sharing among connected devices in close proximity. In contrast, a WAN (Wide Area Network) spans large geographic areas, often connecting multiple locations across cities or even countries, while a MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) covers a broader area than a LAN but is still limited to a city or a metropolitan region. A PAN (Personal Area Network) is even smaller than a LAN, typically covering a few meters and used for connecting personal devices like smartphones and laptops within close range. Thus, LAN is the correct answer because it directly aligns with the scenario of a single office or building, whereas the other types of networks cover much larger or different scopes.
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) governs radio communications in the United States. What is the maximum EIRP (watts) that a point-to-multipoint WISP link can transmit in the 2.4 GHz band?
125 mw.
4 watts
158 watts
2 watts
The correct maximum Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) for a point-to-multipoint Wireless Internet Service Provider (WISP) link in the 2.4 GHz band, according to FCC regulations, is 4 watts. This limit is set by the FCC to ensure efficient use of the spectrum while minimizing interference among users. Specifically, the FCC allows a maximum EIRP of 4 watts (36 dBm) for certain unlicensed operations in the 2.4 GHz band, which is higher than the 125 milliwatts (0.125 watts) or 2 watts limits typically associated with lower-power applications or specific equipment regulations. The 158 watts option is incorrect as it exceeds the regulatory limit by a significant margin, potentially causing harmful interference.
There are numerous Bluetooth devices connected together in an ad hoc network (without a hub, switch, or WAP). What is this type of network?
PAN
LAN
WAN
MAN
The correct term for a network of numerous Bluetooth devices connected together without a hub, switch, or wireless access point is a Personal Area Network (PAN). A PAN is designed for short-range communication among devices within a limited area, typically within a few meters, and is ideal for Bluetooth connections. In contrast, a Local Area Network (LAN) covers a larger area such as a home or office, often relying on infrastructure like routers or switches. A Wide Area Network (WAN) spans a broad geographical area, often connecting multiple LANs over large distances. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) covers a city or large campus, bridging the gap between LANs and WANs. Therefore, PAN is correct because it specifically refers to the small, ad hoc network created by Bluetooth devices.
Your relative is a nature photographer who travels the country in a Class A motorhome. His motorhome is frequently parked in a national park, but Wi-Fi is rarely available. Your relative regularly uploads images from their camera to a laptop, edits them, and then uploads them to his publisher, several magazines, and his website. What is a viable networking option for your relative?
WISP
Cellular
Satellite
DSL
Cellular networking is the most viable option for your relative due to its widespread availability and relatively high-speed connectivity compared to the other options. Unlike DSL, which requires a landline and is often unavailable in remote areas, and satellite, which, while providing global coverage, can be expensive and suffer from latency and slower speeds, cellular networks offer more reliable and faster internet in many locations, including remote areas where national parks are located. WISP (Wireless Internet Service Provider) may be limited to specific regions and can be less consistent in remote locations. Cellular networks, with options for mobile hotspots or data plans, provide the flexibility needed to stay connected and manage their uploads effectively while traveling.
Your company has recently grown and is leasing more office space in a nearby office building. The network must be extended to the new building. Fortunately, a conduit has been made between the two. You anticipate that the cable will be around 300 meters long. What kind of cable should you get?
MMF
CAT-8
CAT-7
CAT-5e
For extending the network over a 300-meter distance between buildings, Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF) is the best choice due to its ability to transmit data reliably over long distances without significant signal loss or interference, unlike the other options. MMF supports high bandwidth over longer distances compared to twisted-pair cables like CAT-5e, CAT-7, and CAT-8, which are designed for shorter runs, typically up to 100 meters for CAT-5e and CAT-7, and up to 30 meters for CAT-8. These twisted-pair cables are suitable for high-speed connections within a single building but are not designed to handle the extended distances of 300 meters between buildings effectively.
In a very secure facility, you are installing network cabling. The cables must be resistant to electronic eavesdropping. What kind of cable should you use?
Coaxial
STP
UTP
Fiber-optic
Fiber-optic cables are the best choice for resisting electronic eavesdropping in a secure facility because they transmit data using light signals through glass or plastic fibers, which makes them highly resistant to electromagnetic interference and eavesdropping. Unlike coaxial and twisted-pair cables (such as STP and UTP), which are susceptible to signal interception through electromagnetic emissions or physical tapping, fiber-optic cables do not emit detectable signals and are difficult to tap into without physically disrupting the fiber. Coaxial cables, while offering some shielding, can still be vulnerable to interception, and STP and UTP cables, although shielded to reduce interference, do not provide the same level of security as fiber optics. Therefore, fiber-optic cables are the most secure choice for preventing unauthorized access to transmitted data.
Which of the following types of Internet connections provides the fastest download speeds?
Cable
DSL
Satellite
Fiber-optic
Fiber-optic internet provides the fastest download speeds because it transmits data as light signals through thin strands of glass or plastic fibers, allowing for extremely high bandwidth and minimal signal degradation over long distances. In contrast, cable internet, which uses coaxial cables, is limited by electrical interference and bandwidth constraints, while DSL, which operates over telephone lines, offers even slower speeds due to its reliance on copper wiring and distance from the central office. Satellite internet, although capable of reaching remote areas, suffers from high latency and lower speeds due to the long distance signals must travel to and from satellites in space.
What port does traffic travel on when you connect to a website that encrypts its connection with TLS?
443
21
80
143
When you connect to a website that encrypts its connection with TLS (Transport Layer Security), the traffic travels over port 443. This is because port 443 is the standard port used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which combines HTTP with TLS/SSL encryption to ensure secure data transmission. Port 80, on the other hand, is used for unencrypted HTTP traffic, while ports 21 and 143 are used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol), respectively, which are unrelated to the secure browsing of websites. Therefore, port 443 is specifically designated for secure, encrypted web traffic.
You’re thinking of configuring a WISP. What benefit do unlicensed frequencies have over licensed frequencies?
The frequencies are not congested.
The performance is better than licensed frequencies.
Equipment is readily available.
The radiated power is unlimited by regulations.
Unlicensed frequencies are advantageous primarily because equipment is readily available, which makes them more accessible and cost-effective for configuring a Wireless Internet Service Provider (WISP). This availability stems from the fact that unlicensed frequencies, such as those in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, are open for use by anyone without the need for special permissions or licenses, leading to a wide range of compatible and affordable hardware. In contrast, licensed frequencies require obtaining licenses, which can be expensive and time-consuming, and the equipment for these bands may be less commonly available. Additionally, while unlicensed frequencies might seem less congested or offer good performance in certain cases, they are subject to interference from other users and are regulated by limits on radiated power, which can impact performance. Thus, the ready availability of equipment for unlicensed frequencies is a significant practical benefit.
Which WISP radio frequency has the advantages of no fees, less expensive equipment, and a large pool of practical knowledge, making it easier to seek help?
Licensed
Unlimited
Limited
Unlicensed
The Unlicensed radio frequency band is advantageous for WISP (Wireless Internet Service Provider) operations due to its lack of regulatory fees, more affordable equipment, and extensive practical knowledge available for support. Unlike licensed frequencies, which require costly licenses and compliance with strict regulations, unlicensed bands do not involve such fees, making them more cost-effective. Equipment for unlicensed frequencies is generally less expensive because it does not need to meet the stringent specifications required for licensed bands. Additionally, the broad use of unlicensed
What kind of network spans huge geographical areas and frequently serves thousands of users, frequently utilizing lines owned by other entities?
PAN
LAN
MAN
WAN
A WAN (Wide Area Network) spans huge geographical areas, often covering cities, countries, or even continents, and is designed to serve thousands of users. It frequently utilizes leased or rented lines from other entities, such as telecommunications companies, to connect various locations. In contrast, a PAN (Personal Area Network) is limited to a small area, like a single room, and typically connects personal devices. A LAN (Local Area Network) covers a smaller area, such as a building or campus, connecting devices within that localized space. A MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) is intermediate in size, covering a city or large campus but still smaller than a WAN. Therefore, WAN is the correct term for networks with extensive geographic reach and extensive user bases.
Which Internet connection type, used to be popular for household usage, provides uneven download and upload speeds and is delivered via standard phone lines?
ISDN
DSL
Cable
POTS
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is the correct answer because it operates over standard phone lines and is known for providing uneven download and upload speeds, with typically faster download speeds compared to upload speeds. ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) also uses phone lines but is designed for digital transmission and does not offer the same speed disparities as DSL. Cable internet, while providing varying speeds, uses coaxial cables rather than phone lines. POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) refers to the traditional analog phone service and does not support broadband internet speeds. Therefore, DSL is specifically known for the speed asymmetry and phone line usage described in the question.
What network type is most typically linked with Bluetooth devices such as wireless keyboards, mouse, and headphones and covers a small area?
MAN
PAN
LAN
WAN
The network type most typically linked with Bluetooth devices such as wireless keyboards, mice, and headphones is PAN (Personal Area Network) because PAN is designed for short-range communication, typically within a few meters. Bluetooth technology operates within this range, facilitating connections between personal devices in close proximity. In contrast, LAN (Local Area Network) covers a larger area within a building or campus, WAN (Wide Area Network) spans vast geographic areas, and MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) covers a city or large campus, making them unsuitable for the short-range, personal device connectivity provided by Bluetooth.
What kind of network spans multiple buildings or workplaces, possibly spanning roadways, but is limited to a narrow geographical area?
MAN
WAN
LAN
PAN
A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is the correct term for a network that spans multiple buildings or workplaces within a narrow geographical area, often covering an entire city or a large campus and sometimes extending across roadways. It is designed to bridge the gap between a Local Area Network (LAN), which is confined to a single building or a small area, and a Wide Area Network (WAN), which covers larger, often global, distances. A Personal Area Network (PAN) is much smaller, typically covering only a few meters around an individual, such as within a home. Therefore, MAN is the suitable term as it fits the description of a network that covers a broader area than a LAN but is more localized than a WAN.
You must establish an Internet connection for a forest ranger outlook tower that is stationed far from power sources. Which is the BEST option for broadband Internet access?
Fiber
Satellite
DSL
Cable
For a forest ranger outlook tower stationed far from power sources, satellite Internet is the best option because it provides connectivity regardless of geographical location, making it ideal for remote areas where other infrastructure is lacking. Fiber, DSL, and cable require proximity to a central office or infrastructure, which is not feasible in such isolated settings. Fiber needs a physical connection with high-speed data transmission that typically extends only to urban or developed areas. DSL and cable depend on existing telephone lines or cable networks, which are unlikely to reach remote towers. Satellite Internet, on the other hand, offers the flexibility of coverage from space, enabling reliable communication in remote locations without needing extensive ground-based infrastructure.
You are installing network cabling in an office space’s drop ceiling. Breathable air is circulated across the ceiling area. What kind of cable do you need to install?
Coaxial
Fiber-optic
UTP
Plenum
For installing network cabling in a drop ceiling with breathable air circulation, you need plenum-rated cable. Plenum cables have insulation that is specifically designed to be fire-resistant and to emit less smoke when burned, which is crucial in spaces where air circulation can spread smoke quickly. Coaxial and fiber-optic cables, while suitable for certain types of data transmission, do not necessarily meet these safety requirements for plenum spaces. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cables, commonly used for networking, may not have the necessary fire-resistant insulation unless they are specifically rated as plenum cables. Thus, using plenum-rated UTP cable ensures compliance with safety standards in air-handling spaces.
What is a network of storage devices that a server may access as if it were a locally connected drive?
NAS
WAN
SAN
SAS
The correct term is SAN (Storage Area Network), as it is specifically designed to allow servers to access storage devices as if they were locally attached drives. SANs provide high-speed, block-level access to storage and are used to connect servers and storage devices over a dedicated network. NAS (Network Attached Storage), by contrast, provides file-level access to storage over a network and does not present storage as locally attached. WAN (Wide Area Network) is a broad network covering large geographic areas and is not specific to storage access. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a hardware interface standard for connecting storage devices but does not define a network that makes storage appear local to servers.
You’re working with a doctor’s office to build a network that will allow the doctor’s employees to use their tablet PCs in any room of the office without worrying about network wiring. What kind of network will you put in place for the doctor’s office?
VLAN
WAN
WLAN
LAN
For a doctor’s office where employees need to use tablet PCs in any room without worrying about network wiring, a WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network) is the ideal solution. WLAN provides wireless connectivity, allowing devices to connect to the network without the need for physical cables, which is perfect for a mobile environment like a doctor’s office. In contrast, a LAN (Local Area Network) typically involves wired connections, making it impractical for a setup where mobility is crucial. A WAN (Wide Area Network) connects networks over larger distances and is unnecessary for a single office’s internal network. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network), while useful for segmenting network traffic, does not provide wireless access on its own. Thus, WLAN is the most suitable choice for enabling wireless network access throughout the office.
Which TCP/IP protocol is utilized on the network to give shared access to files and printers?
SSH
SMB
SMTP
FTP
The correct protocol for shared access to files and printers over a network is SMB (Server Message Block). SMB facilitates file and printer sharing by allowing applications to read and write to files and request services from server programs in a networked environment. In contrast, SSH (Secure Shell) is used for secure remote login and command execution, SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is employed for email transmission, and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between systems but does not inherently manage shared access to printers. SMB integrates these functionalities into a single protocol, making it the right choice for network-based file and printer sharing.
Your client is relocating his office to a remote mountain area with no cable Internet access. He’s heard that a wireless option in the area which is faster than satellite is available, but it requires an antenna and line-of-sight to a tower. What option has he been told about?
WISP
Cellular hotspot.
DSL
Satellite
The option your client has been told about is WISP (Wireless Internet Service Provider). WISP is suitable for remote mountain areas because it provides internet access through wireless signals from a base station or tower, requiring a clear line-of-sight and an antenna to ensure a stable connection. Unlike cellular hotspots, which depend on cellular network coverage that may be limited in such areas, or DSL, which requires telephone lines not available in remote locations, WISP is designed for scenarios without traditional wired infrastructure. Although satellite internet does not need a line-of-sight to a terrestrial tower, WISP is mentioned as being faster and specifically matches the requirement for an antenna and line-of-sight.
You will be traveling to another country for work and will be flying for ten hours. You need to work on your laptop while flying, but your battery will not last that long. What should you buy to be able to use the airplane’s auxiliary power outlets?
DC adapter.
AC adapter.
Power inverter
Docking station.
The DC adapter is the correct choice for using your laptop on an airplane because it converts the 12V DC power from the airplane’s auxiliary power outlet into the appropriate voltage required by your laptop. In contrast, an AC adapter is designed for standard AC power outlets and won’t work with the DC outlets on planes. A power inverter converts DC power to AC power, adding unnecessary complexity for this situation, while a docking station typically relies on an AC adapter and doesn’t address the power conversion needed from the airplane’s DC outlet.
DHCP uses which of the following ports?
67/68
137/139
80
445
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) uses ports 67 and 68 because these are designated for communication between the DHCP server and client. Port 67 is used by the DHCP server to receive client requests, while port 68 is used by the DHCP client to receive responses from the server. Ports 137 and 139 are associated with NetBIOS over TCP/IP, port 80 is used for HTTP (web traffic), and port 445 is used for SMB (Server Message Block) over TCP/IP, all of which serve different network functions unrelated to DHCP. Therefore, ports 67 and 68 are specifically reserved for DHCP operations, making them the correct choice.
Which TCP/IP protocol is intended to aid in the mapping of hostnames to IP addresses?
ARP
DNS
DHCP
RARP
The Domain Name System (DNS) is the TCP/IP protocol specifically designed to map hostnames to IP addresses, allowing users to access websites and services using easily memorable names rather than numeric IP addresses. DNS translates human-readable domain names (like www.example.com) into the corresponding IP addresses (like 192.0.2.1) that computers use to identify each other on the network. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) operates within a local network to map IP addresses to physical MAC addresses, while DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) assigns IP addresses to devices on a network dynamically, and RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) maps MAC addresses to IP addresses, but it is largely obsolete. Thus, DNS is the correct protocol for resolving hostnames to IP addresses.
Which TCP/IP protocol enables a user to log into a remote computer and manage files as if they were logged into a local computer?
SMB
SFTP
RDP
FTP
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is the correct answer because it allows users to log into a remote computer and interact with its desktop environment as if they were physically present at that machine, enabling full remote management. SMB (Server Message Block) is used for sharing files and printers over a network but does not provide a remote desktop experience. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is designed for secure file transfers over a network rather than for remote desktop access. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) facilitates file transfers but does not provide a remote desktop interface for managing files and applications as if directly logged in.
You have reason to suspect that a number of network users are actively reading banned content on unsecured Internet sites. Which firewall port can you disable to prevent access to these websites?
67
443
80
53
Port 80 is used for HTTP traffic, which is the protocol commonly used for accessing unsecured websites, including those with banned content. Disabling port 80 would block HTTP traffic, thus preventing users from accessing these sites. Port 443 is used for HTTPS traffic, which is encrypted and also used for secure website access. Port 53 is for DNS, which translates domain names to IP addresses but does not directly control access to website content. Port 67 is used for DHCP, which handles IP address assignment and is unrelated to browsing or content access. Thus, port 80 is the correct choice for preventing access to unsecured websites.
What kind of server, which is similar to the way a web server serves web pages, may host files for simple access and download?
File server
FTP server.
Proxy server
DNS server.
An FTP server is the correct choice for hosting files for simple access and download because it is specifically designed to handle file transfers over the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). FTP servers allow users to upload, download, and manage files via FTP clients or web browsers configured to handle FTP links. In contrast, a file server is a more general term that could describe any server providing access to files, but it doesn’t specify the protocol used. A proxy server acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers and is not typically used for direct file access and download. A DNS server resolves domain names into IP addresses and is unrelated to file hosting or transfer.
Which of the following ports is associated with the LDAP protocol?
22
389
3389
139
Port 389 is associated with the LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) because LDAP uses this port for standard communication. Port 389 is the default port for LDAP, allowing clients and servers to interact over this protocol to manage and access directory services. Ports 22, 3389, and 139 are associated with different protocols: port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), port 3389 is used for RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), and port 139 is used for NetBIOS Session Service. Therefore, 389 is correct as it is the designated port for LDAP services, while the others serve entirely different purposes.
When the FCC determined in 2021 to include it in the Over-The-Air-Reception Devices Rule (OTARD), which safeguards those organizations’ rights to deploy antennas where they are needed, which broadband network communications technology became more competitive with other forms of service?
Fios
Long-range fixed wireless.
Satellite
DSL
In 2021, the FCC’s decision to include long-range fixed wireless technology under the Over-The-Air Reception Devices Rule (OTARD) significantly boosted its competitiveness. This rule, which protects the right to install antennas for receiving over-the-air signals, allowed long-range fixed wireless providers to deploy their infrastructure more effectively in residential areas. Unlike Fios (fiber-optic service), which requires extensive physical infrastructure, or satellite, which has limitations in signal quality and latency, long-range fixed wireless offers a more flexible and cost-effective alternative. DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) suffers from lower speeds and performance constraints compared to long-range fixed wireless. Therefore, long-range fixed wireless gained a competitive edge as it could now be more easily deployed to offer high-speed internet in underserved areas.
Which of the following TCP/IP protocols strives to guarantee packet delivery and is connection-oriented?
IP
UDP
ICMP
TCP
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is the correct answer because it is designed to guarantee packet delivery and is connection-oriented, ensuring reliable communication between devices. It establishes a connection before transmitting data, manages the data transmission, and ensures that packets are delivered in the correct order, retransmitting any lost packets. In contrast, IP (Internet Protocol) is responsible for addressing and routing packets but does not guarantee delivery or establish connections. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is connectionless and does not guarantee packet delivery or order, focusing instead on low-latency and low-overhead communication. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for diagnostic and error-reporting purposes but does not handle data transmission itself.
Which TCP/IP protocol collects and controls network performance data through the use of devices called agents?
SMB
SMTP
LDAP
SNMP
The correct protocol for collecting and controlling network performance data through the use of devices called agents is SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol). SNMP is specifically designed for network management, allowing network administrators to monitor and control network devices like routers, switches, and servers. It uses agents installed on these devices to gather and report performance metrics, status information, and other operational data to a central management system. In contrast, SMB (Server Message Block) is used for file and printer sharing, SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for email transmission, and LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is used for directory services. None of these protocols are intended for network performance monitoring or management, which is the primary function of SNMP.
Which of the following TCP/IP protocols was created to replace Telnet?
SMB
SSH
FTPS
SFTP
SSH (Secure Shell) was created to replace Telnet because it provides a secure, encrypted channel for remote command-line access, addressing Telnet’s vulnerability to eavesdropping and data breaches. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in plain text, SSH encrypts the communication between client and server, making it significantly more secure. SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol used for file sharing and network communication rather than remote command-line access. FTPS (FTP Secure) and SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) are secure file transfer protocols; FTPS adds encryption to FTP, while SFTP is a different protocol that operates over SSH, specifically designed for secure file transfers. Thus, SSH is the protocol designed to enhance security for remote access, directly addressing the shortcomings of Telnet.
What version of SMB was once utilized by Windows servers and NAS servers but is now rarely used?
NFS
CIFS
Samba
SMB3
CIFS (Common Internet File System) is the correct answer because it was an early version of the SMB (Server Message Block) protocol, primarily used by Windows servers and NAS devices for file sharing and network communication. CIFS is now rarely used because it has been largely replaced by more advanced versions of SMB, particularly SMB2 and SMB3, which offer improved performance, security, and functionality. NFS (Network File System) is a different protocol used primarily in Unix and Linux environments for file sharing, while Samba is an open-source implementation of the SMB protocol that supports both CIFS and newer SMB versions. Therefore, CIFS is the specific version that has fallen out of common use compared to its successors.
Which TCP/IP host-to-host protocol makes every effort but cannot guarantee data delivery?
UDP
TCP
IP
ICMP
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is the correct choice because it is a connectionless protocol that does not guarantee data delivery, ordering, or error recovery. It merely sends packets, called datagrams, to the destination with no acknowledgment or retransmission in case of loss. In contrast, TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) ensures reliable data delivery through mechanisms such as acknowledgments, retransmissions, and ordering. IP (Internet Protocol) is responsible for addressing and routing packets but does not handle error recovery or guarantee delivery. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for sending error messages and operational information but is not a data transport protocol. Thus, UDP is uniquely characterized by its lack of delivery guarantees, making it the correct choice for this question.
Which TCP/IP protocol for email download allows several clients to connect to the same mailbox at the same time?
POP3
SMTP
IMAP
SMB
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is the correct protocol for allowing several clients to connect to the same mailbox simultaneously because it is designed to manage and sync email messages on the server side, enabling multiple devices to access and manipulate the mailbox content concurrently while maintaining consistency across all devices. Unlike POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3), which typically downloads and removes emails from the server, IMAP keeps emails on the server and synchronizes actions like reading, deleting, or organizing messages across all connected clients. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used solely for sending emails, not for accessing or managing mailboxes, and SMB (Server Message Block) is unrelated to email protocols, focusing instead on file and printer sharing in network environments.
You’ve configured your web server to serve as an FTP server. Internet users report that they are unable to connect to the server using FTP clients. What port should they try to connect to the server through?
80
21
23
22
The correct port for FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is port 21. FTP traditionally uses port 21 for the control connection, where commands and responses are exchanged between the client and the server. Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell) and SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol), not for standard FTP. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is a different protocol altogether. Port 80 is used for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), which is also not related to FTP. Therefore, to connect to an FTP server, users should use port 21, as it is specifically designated for FTP communications.
Some of your network’s users are hesitant to send sensitive information to an online website. What should you say to them?
If the website address starts with HTTPS://, it should be OK to submit confidential information to a trusted site.
It’s fine, because all Internet traffic is encrypted.
Don’t ever submit confidential information to any online website.
If the website address starts with TLS://, it should be OK to submit confidential information to a trusted site.
If the website address starts with HTTPS://, it indicates that the site uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, which encrypts data transmitted between your browser and the website using SSL/TLS protocols. This encryption helps protect sensitive information, such as passwords and financial details, from being intercepted by unauthorized parties. However, while HTTPS:// provides a layer of security, it does not guarantee the trustworthiness of the website itself, so it’s still crucial to ensure that the site is legitimate and reputable before submitting confidential information. The other options are incorrect: not all internet traffic is encrypted, and “TLS://” is not a valid prefix for websites. Additionally, it’s not practical to avoid submitting confidential information to all online websites, but caution and verification are essential.
There is a TCP/IP protocol that should be used only locally due to its lack of security. It can be used with thin clients booting from a network disk or as part of a preboot execution environment (PXE). It is connectionless and consumes very little memory, making it ideal for transmitting boot files or configuration data between PCs on a LAN. What kind of file transfer protocol is this?
FTPS
TFTP
SMTP
FTP
The correct protocol in this context is TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol). TFTP is designed for simple, connectionless file transfers, making it ideal for use in local network environments where security is less of a concern, such as in booting thin clients or during PXE operations. Unlike FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and FTPS (FTP Secure), which provide more advanced features and security mechanisms but also consume more resources, TFTP operates without a connection-oriented setup and uses minimal memory, aligning with the needs for transferring boot files or configuration data over a LAN. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is not relevant here, as it is used for sending email rather than file transfers.
Which two port numbers must be opened in order to allow FTP (File Transfer Protocol) communications?
22/23
21/22
20/21
23/25
Port numbers 20 and 21 are used for FTP communications: port 21 is the control port where commands are sent and responses are received, while port 20 is used for data transfer. When a connection is initiated, FTP commands are communicated through port 21, and the actual file transfers occur through port 20 in active mode. The other port combinations are incorrect because port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), port 23 is used for Telnet, and port 25 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), which are unrelated to FTP functionality. Thus, for proper FTP operation, ports 20 and 21 must be opened.
Which Wi-Fi protocol is the fastest, running at both 2.4 and 5 GHz?
802.11n
802.11ac
802.11a
802.11ax
The fastest Wi-Fi protocol running at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is 802.11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6. Unlike 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4) and 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5), which offer significant improvements over their predecessors but are limited in their capabilities, 802.11ax is designed to provide superior speed, efficiency, and capacity. It enhances performance by using advanced technologies like Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA), Target Wake Time (TWT), and improved modulation techniques, which significantly boost speeds and efficiency, especially in crowded environments. 802.11a, an older standard, operates only on 5 GHz and is slower compared to 802.11ax, making it less suitable for high-speed, high-capacity needs.
Which TCP/IP port will an email client utilize to send email to its email server?
25
23
110
143
Port 25 is used by email clients to send email to their email servers because it is the default port for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which handles email transmission. Ports 23, 110, and 143 are used for other purposes: port 23 is for the Telnet protocol, which is used for remote text-based communication; port 110 is used by the Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3), which is for retrieving emails from a server; and port 143 is used by the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), which allows clients to access and manage their email on the server. Thus, port 25 is specifically designated for sending emails, making it the correct choice.
Which TCP/IP protocol resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?
ARP
IP
DHCP
SSH
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is the correct protocol for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses. It operates within a local network to map an IP address, which is used at the network layer, to a MAC address, which is used at the data link layer. IP (Internet Protocol) is responsible for addressing and routing packets across networks but does not handle address resolution. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) assigns IP addresses to devices on a network but does not convert them to MAC addresses. SSH (Secure Shell) is used for secure remote login and does not deal with address resolution. Thus, ARP is specifically designed to bridge the gap between the IP layer and the MAC layer.
You have been tasked with configuring a device that will be monitored with an SNMP agent and manager. When polling the agent, what port will the SNMP manager use?
TCP 161
UDP 161
TCP 143
UDP 143
The SNMP manager uses UDP port 161 when polling the SNMP agent because Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) primarily operates over User Datagram Protocol (UDP) due to its low overhead and efficiency in handling management data. UDP port 161 is designated for SNMP messages, including both queries and responses, ensuring that the protocol’s lightweight nature is maintained. TCP port 161 is incorrect because SNMP does not use TCP, which is a connection-oriented protocol with additional overhead. Similarly, UDP ports 143 and TCP port 143 are incorrect because these ports are associated with other protocols; UDP port 143 is used for the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) and TCP port 143 is related to the IMAP protocol as well, not SNMP.
The Telnet protocol uses which of the following ports?
22
23
21
25
The Telnet protocol uses port 23 for its communication, as this is the standard port assigned for Telnet services in the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry. Ports 22, 21, and 25 are used for other protocols: port 22 is designated for SSH (Secure Shell), port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), and port 25 is assigned to SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). Each protocol has a specific port to ensure organized and efficient network communication, and Telnet’s use of port 23 is established to distinguish it from these other services.
Which TCP/IP Internet layer protocol is in charge of sending error messages when two computers’ communication fails?
ICMP
UDP
TCP
IP
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is responsible for sending error messages and diagnostics when network communication fails, operating at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model. It helps in reporting issues like unreachable destinations. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), on the other hand, are transport layer protocols focused on data transmission and reliability, with UDP being connectionless and TCP providing reliable communication. IP (Internet Protocol) handles addressing and routing but does not manage error reporting. Therefore, ICMP is the correct protocol for error messages.
Which Microsoft TCP/IP protocol utilizes port 3389 to connect to a remote computer?
Telnet
RDP
CIFS
SMB
RDP, or Remote Desktop Protocol, utilizes port 3389 to establish a remote desktop connection to a computer, allowing users to access and control a remote system as if they were physically present. This is distinct from Telnet, which uses port 23 for command-line interface connections, CIFS (Common Internet File System), which operates over port 445 for file sharing, and SMB (Server Message Block), which also typically uses port 445 for network file and printer sharing. Therefore, RDP is the correct answer because it specifically uses port 3389, while the other protocols use different ports for their respective functions.
What legacy network protocol enables NetBIOS-dependent computer applications to connect with each other over TCP/IP?
BGP
TFTP
NetBT
HTTPS
NetBT (Network Basic Input/Output System over TCP/IP) is the legacy network protocol that allows NetBIOS-dependent applications to communicate over TCP/IP networks. NetBT essentially encapsulates NetBIOS requests in TCP/IP packets, enabling older applications that rely on NetBIOS for network services to operate over modern TCP/IP networks. In contrast, BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is a routing protocol used to exchange routing information between different networks, TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) is a simple file transfer protocol, and HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is used for secure web communications. Therefore, these protocols do not provide the NetBIOS functionality necessary for NetBIOS-dependent applications to connect over TCP/IP.
Which TCP/IP protocol allows you to access data maintained in an information directory, such as employee phone numbers and email addresses?
LDAP
CIFS
SNMP
SMTP
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is the correct choice for accessing data maintained in information directories like employee phone numbers and email addresses because it is specifically designed for querying and modifying directory services, which store hierarchical information. CIFS (Common Internet File System) is used for file sharing across networks, not directory services. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management and monitoring, and SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails, neither of which pertain to accessing directory data. Thus, LDAP is the protocol tailored for accessing and managing directory information, making it the appropriate choice.
Ports 137 and 139 are used by which of the following protocols?
NetBT
DNS
SMB
SSH
Ports 137 and 139 are used by NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT), which is a protocol that allows legacy network applications relying on NetBIOS to operate over TCP/IP networks. Port 137 is used for NetBIOS Name Service (NBNS), which resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses, while port 139 is used for NetBIOS Session Service, facilitating communication between applications over the network. DNS (Domain Name System) typically operates on port 53, SMB (Server Message Block) commonly uses port 445 for file and printer sharing, and SSH (Secure Shell) uses port 22 for secure remote administration. Thus, NetBT is correct because it specifically utilizes ports 137 and 139, while the other protocols use different ports.
Which TCP/IP protocol is in charge of dynamically allocating IP addresses to client computers?
DHCP
DNS
RDP
LDAP
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is responsible for dynamically assigning IP addresses to client computers, ensuring they can connect to a network without manual configuration. In contrast, DNS (Domain Name System) resolves domain names into IP addresses, RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) enables remote access to computers, and LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) manages directory services. Thus, only DHCP directly handles IP address allocation, making it the correct choice.
What communication method enables low-power, passive reading of a small tag or patch on an object located anywhere from a few feet to dozens of feet away?
Wi-Fi
RFID
NFC
RFI
RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) is the correct communication method for enabling low-power, passive reading of a small tag or patch on an object located from a few feet to dozens of feet away because it uses radio waves to transfer data between a reader and a tag without needing a direct line of sight. RFID tags are powered by the electromagnetic fields generated by the reader, allowing them to function passively without a battery. In contrast, Wi-Fi requires more power and is designed for high-speed data transfer over longer distances, NFC (Near Field Communication) is limited to very short ranges typically a few centimeters, and RFI (Radio Frequency Interference) is not a communication method but rather a disruption phenomenon that affects radio signals.
You must setup email settings for IMAP use. Which port are you going to configure?
143
80
110
25
For configuring IMAP email settings, port 143 is the correct choice because it is the standard port used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) communication, which allows email clients to retrieve and manage messages from a server. Port 110 is used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3), which is another email protocol, while port 25 is typically used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) to send emails, and port 80 is used for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) for web browsing. Therefore, port 143 specifically supports the IMAP protocol required for managing emails.
A computer must be added to an IPv6 subnet by your network administrator. Which of these IPv6 addresses is on the same subnet as 2601:0:0:0:1a:308c:2acb:fee2?
2601:0:0:0x::2acb:ac01
2601:of:308c:47:4321
2601:0f:ab:cd:123:4a
fe80:ab:bc:0f:la:308c:2abc:fee5
The address 2601:0f:ab:cd:123:4a is on the same subnet as 2601:0:0:0:1a:308c:2acb:fee2 because it shares the same first 64 bits of the address prefix (2601:0:0:0::/64). The other addresses are incorrect due to invalid characters or different prefixes.
Which of the following IPv6 addresses corresponds to the IPv4 address 127.0.0.1?
::127
2000::/3
::0
::1
The IPv6 address that corresponds to the IPv4 address 127.0.0.1 is ::1. This is because ::1 is the IPv6 representation of the loopback address, similar to 127.0.0.1 in IPv4, used for loopback testing within the same host. The other options are incorrect: ::127 is not a valid IPv6 address format, 2000::/3 is a large address block reserved for global unicast addresses, and ::0 is simply an unspecified address, not related to loopback functionality. Thus, ::1 directly maps to the IPv4 loopback address 127.0.0.1, fulfilling the intended function.
Dylan is debugging his IPv4 network. The subnet mask of the network is 255.255.192.0. Which of the following IP addresses does NOT belong to the same network?
130.200.100.4
130.200.130.1
130.200.65.5
130.200.65.5
To determine which IP address does not belong to the same network, we use the subnet mask 255.255.192.0. This mask defines a network range where the first 18 bits are for the network address. Applying this to the IPs, 130.200.100.4, 130.200.65.5, and 130.200.125.5 all fall within the network 130.200.64.0/18. However, 130.200.130.1 falls into the network 130.200.128.0/18, making it part of a different subnet. Thus, 130.200.130.1 does not belong to the same network as the other addresses.
Which of the following lP addresses is NOT Internet routable?
10.1.1.1
12.1.1.1
13.1.1.1
11.1.1.1
The IP address 10.1.1.1 is not Internet routable because it falls within the range of private IP addresses defined by RFC 1918, specifically for Class A networks (10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255). These addresses are reserved for use within private networks and are not intended to be routed on the public Internet. In contrast, the addresses 12.1.1.1, 13.1.1.1, and 11.1.1.1 are all part of public IP address ranges and can be routed over the Internet, as they do not fall within any of the reserved private IP address ranges.
You are configuring TCP/IP hosts on the network manually. Which configuration parameter specifies the router’s internal address, which allows Internet access?
DNS server
DHCP server.
Subnet mask.
Default gateway.
The “Default gateway” is the correct configuration parameter for specifying a router’s internal address, enabling Internet access. It directs traffic from a local network to destinations outside it. In contrast, the “DNS server” resolves domain names to IP addresses, the “DHCP server” assigns IP addresses dynamically, and the “Subnet mask” defines the range of local IP addresses. None of these parameters handle routing to external networks like the default gateway does.
What is the host number in a 192.168.2.200 IP address with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?
192.168.2
192.168
200
2.200
In the IP address 192.168.2.200 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, the host number is 200. This is because the subnet mask 255.255.255.0, also represented as /24, indicates that the first 24 bits (192.168.2) are used for the network portion, and the remaining 8 bits are used for the host portion within that network. Thus, the host number is derived from the last octet of the IP address, which is 200. The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the specific portion of the IP address designated for host identification within the subnet: 192.168.2 represents the network part, 192.168 is only a partial network address, and 2.200 combines network and host portions.
What is the multicast range in IPv6?
:1
FF00::/8
FE80::abc:1:2/64
2001;dba:45c:1::5/64
In IPv6, multicast addresses are identified by the address range starting with FF00::/8, which signifies that the address begins with the prefix FF, distinguishing it as a multicast address. The other ranges mentioned do not fall within this scope: ::1 is the loopback address, used for local communication within the same host; FE80::abc:1:2/64 is a link-local address, used for communication within a single network segment; and 2001:db8:45c:1::5/64 is a unique local address (ULA), used for local communication within a specific site. Hence, only FF00::/8 is correct for identifying multicast addresses in IPv6.
Which form of IPv6 address represents a single network node?
Multicast
Anycast
Localcast
Unicast
The correct form of IPv6 address representing a single network node is unicast. A unicast address is specifically designed to identify a single unique network interface, allowing data to be sent from one node to a specific destination node. In contrast, multicast addresses are used to send data to multiple nodes within a group, anycast addresses allow data to be sent to any one of a group of nodes (with the closest or best node typically receiving it), and “localcast” is not a recognized form of IPv6 address. Thus, unicast is the only type that directly targets a single, unique network node.
You are configuring hosts on an IPv4 network. What are the components required for the computer to connect to the network?
IP address and subnet mask.
IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.
IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address.
IP address.
To connect to an IPv4 network, a computer needs at least an IP address and a subnet mask. The IP address uniquely identifies the device on the network, while the subnet mask defines the network’s address range and determines which portion of the IP address is used for the network and which is used for the host. Although the default gateway and DNS server address are important for routing traffic outside the local network and for resolving domain names, respectively, they are not strictly necessary for basic network connectivity. Thus, while IP address and subnet mask are fundamental for network communication, the default gateway and DNS server address enhance functionality but are not required for basic connection.
You have installed an 802.11ac Wi-Fi network that has three overlapping wireless access points. In order to provide the best bandwidth and avoid communication issues, what channel width should the access points be set to?
20 MHz
80 MHz
40 MHz
It doesn’t matter in 802.11ac
In an 802.11ac Wi-Fi network with three overlapping access points, setting the channel width to 40 MHz is generally optimal because it strikes a balance between maximizing throughput and minimizing interference. While 80 MHz channels can offer higher data rates, they are more prone to interference in crowded or overlapping environments, which can degrade performance. On the other hand, 20 MHz channels offer less throughput, which might not fully utilize the capabilities of 802.11ac. Therefore, 40 MHz is often preferred as it provides a good compromise by delivering improved bandwidth without excessive interference. The setting of channel width does matter in 802.11ac, as the channel width directly influences the network’s performance and efficiency.
You’re setting up network hosts using static IP addresses. You’ve used a Class B network address. What is the default subnet mask for the hosts that you should configure?
255.255.0.0
255.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
255.255.255.0
In a Class B network, the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, which is correct because it provides the necessary separation between the network and host portions of the IP address for this class. Class B addresses use the first 16 bits for the network portion and the remaining 16 bits for the host portion, allowing for a large number of hosts within each network. The subnet mask 255.0.0.0 is associated with Class A networks, 255.255.255.255 is used for broadcast addresses, and 255.255.255.0 is for Class C networks, making them inappropriate for a Class B network setup.
You’ve been tasked with configuring a wireless network for a SOHO that will only enable five devices to connect. How can you do this task?
Configure port forwarding.
Disable the router’s SSID.
Configure MAC address filtering.
Set a DHCP scope with only five addresses.
Configuring MAC address filtering is the correct choice because it directly limits network access to only the specified devices by their unique MAC addresses. Port forwarding directs traffic, disabling the SSID only hides the network name, and a DHCP scope with five addresses doesn’t prevent devices from connecting if they use static IPs.
Which of the following IPv6 addresses is issued to the host automatically when it boots and is only useable on the broadcast domain in which it exists?
FC00:/7
2000::/3
FFOO:/8
FE80::/10
The IPv6 address range FE80::/10 is correct because it designates link-local addresses, which are automatically assigned to a host upon boot and are used only within the local network segment or broadcast domain where the host resides. These addresses are essential for communication between nodes on the same link and are not routable beyond that link. In contrast, FC00::/7 refers to Unique Local Addresses (ULA) for local use within an organization but not automatically assigned, 2000::/3 is for globally routable addresses used across the internet, and FF00::/8 is reserved for multicast addresses, which are used to send data to multiple recipients rather than a single host on a local network.
You want to send a single message to several computers simultaneously on an IPv6 network. What kind of address class should you employ?
Multicast
Broadcast
Unicast
Anycast
To send a single message to several computers simultaneously on an IPv6 network, you should use a Multicast address. Multicast allows a message to be sent to a group of interested devices rather than all devices (which would be Broadcast) or a specific single device (Unicast). IPv6 does not support Broadcast addresses, as they are considered inefficient and obsolete; instead, it uses Multicast and Anycast. Multicast targets multiple devices that are part of a specific multicast group, while Anycast sends the message to the nearest device in a group of potential receivers, making Multicast the most appropriate choice for simultaneously reaching several devices efficiently.
Which of the following IP addresses is NOT a private address and hence can be routed through the Internet?
192.168.38.155
172.18.31.54
172.168.38.155
10.1.2.3
The IP address 172.168.38.155 is not a private address and can be routed through the Internet because it falls outside the reserved private IP address ranges. Private IP addresses are designated within specific ranges: 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. The address 192.168.38.155 is within the 192.168.x.x range, the address 172.18.31.54 is within the 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 range, and the address 10.1.2.3 is within the 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 range, making them all private. In contrast, 172.168.38.155 falls outside the defined private ranges (it is in the 172.168.x.x range, which is not reserved for private use), so it can be routed on the Internet.
Your network hosts are all set up to use DHCP. Which IP address indicates that a host was unable to locate a DHCP server?
172.16.1.1
192.168.1.1
169.254.1.1
10.1.1.1
The IP address 169.254.1.1 indicates that a host was unable to locate a DHCP server because it falls within the link-local address range defined by the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) protocol. When a device is configured to use DHCP and cannot find a DHCP server, it automatically assigns itself an IP address in the 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 range. This allows for local network communication even without DHCP. In contrast, IP addresses like 172.16.1.1, 192.168.1.1, and 10.1.1.1 fall within private address ranges that are typically used for internal network addressing and do not indicate any specific DHCP failure.
You’re debugging a computer with an IPv6 address in the FE80::/10 range. Which of the following assertions is INCORRECT?
The computer is configured with a link-local unicast address.
The computer will not be able to get on the Internet using that IP address.
The computer will be able to get on the Internet using that iP address.
The computer is configured with a global unicast address.
The assertion “The computer will be able to get on the Internet using that IP address” is incorrect because an IPv6 address in the FE80::/10 range is a link-local address, which is designed for communication within a single network segment or link and is not routable across the Internet. Consequently, such addresses are used for local communication between devices on the same network but cannot be used to access external networks or the Internet. The correct assertions are that the computer is configured with a link-local unicast address and that it will not be able to get on the Internet using that IP address. Additionally, the assertion that the computer is configured with a global unicast address is also incorrect in this context, as global unicast addresses are in a different range and are used for Internet communication, not link-local addresses.
You notice that the local computer has an IPv4 address of 169.254.2.2 while debugging a network connectivity issue. What are your FIRST impressions of this local computer?
It can’t find a DHCP server.
It isn’t on the network.
It has an invalid IP address.
It is working fine.
The IP address 169.254.2.2 suggests the computer can’t find a DHCP server, as it’s using an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. This means the computer failed to get a valid IP address from a DHCP server. The address isn’t invalid per se, and it indicates the computer is on the network but hasn’t received proper configuration.
How do end-user devices know what IP address they need to use to connect to a small office, home office (SOHO) network when it is set up?
Devices utilize service location protocol.
End users configure IP addresses as needed.
The network switch broadcasts configuration settings.
The NIC is set with a static address or DHCP-served.
The correct option is “The NIC is set with a static address or DHCP-served” because it directly addresses how end-user devices determine their IP addresses on a SOHO network. When a device connects to a network, its Network Interface Card (NIC) either uses a static IP address, which is manually configured by the user, or obtains an IP address dynamically through the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP), which is automatically provided by a DHCP server on the network. This method ensures that devices are properly assigned IP addresses necessary for communication within the network. The other options are incorrect because Service Location Protocol is used for service discovery, not IP address assignment, end users typically do not manually configure IP addresses in modern networks, and network switches do not handle IP address configuration but simply manage network traffic.
Which of the following expressions represents the CIDR subnet mask 255.255.224.0?
/19
/21
/20
/22
The CIDR subnet mask 255.255.224.0 corresponds to /19. To understand why /19 is correct, consider that a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0 in binary is 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000. The mask has 19 bits set to 1 (eight bits in each of the first two octets, plus the first three bits of the third octet), which means it covers a network portion of 19 bits. In contrast, /21, /20, and /22 correspond to subnet masks with 21, 20, and 22 bits set to 1, respectively. Thus, /19 is the exact match for the subnet mask 255.255.224.0, while the others do not align with the given mask.
A technician will install a Wi-Fi network using standard omnidirectional antennae. Because of the building’s layout, the technician’s primary criterion is to send signals as far as possible. Which standard should they adhere to?
802.11n
802.11g
802.1lac
802.11a
The technician should adhere to the 802.11n standard because it provides the best balance of range and performance compared to the other options. Unlike 802.11g, which has lower data rates and range, or 802.11a, which operates at a less favorable frequency (5 GHz) with limited range and penetration, 802.11n offers enhanced range and data rates through the use of multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology and operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. While 802.11ac offers higher speeds, it primarily operates at 5 GHz, which can have shorter range and poorer penetration through obstacles compared to the 2.4 GHz band used by 802.11n. Therefore, 802.11n is the optimal choice for maximizing signal distance in a building’s layout.
Given this IP address 2001::1a3:fla:308:833, choose the interface ID of it.
1a3:fla:308:833
2001:0:0:0:
2001
833
The interface ID of the IPv6 address 2001::1a3:fla:308:833 is 1a3:fla:308:833. This represents the last 64 bits of the address. The choices 2001:0:0:0:, 2001, and 833 are incorrect because they either represent the network prefix or a partial segment, not the complete interface ID.
What is NOT a routable IP address on the Internet?
192.168.1.1
169.192.1.1
192.169.1.1
168.192.1.1
192.168.1.1 is not routable on the Internet because it belongs to the private IP address range (192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255) reserved for local networks. The other IPs listed are not within this reserved range and may be routable or incorrectly formatted.
You are invited to counsel for a medium-sized company that is experiencing network connectivity problems. You note that none of the dozens of UTP cables on the patch panel are labeled. Which tool can you use to determine which cable is connected to which workstation?
Tone generator and probe.
Punchdown tool.
Cable tester.
Loopback plug.
A tone generator and probe are ideal for tracing UTP cables because they send a signal through the cable, allowing you to detect and identify it at the other end. A punchdown tool is for terminating cables, a cable tester checks for faults, and a loopback plug tests ports, but none of these tools help in tracing cables to specific workstations.
You are troubleshooting a Cat 6 network connection that is intermittently failing. You believe there is a short in the connection. Which tool can you use to figure this out?
Tone generator and probe.
Crimper
Loopback plug.
Cable tester.
A cable tester is the correct tool to use for diagnosing intermittent failures in a Cat 6 network connection because it can identify shorts, opens, miswires, and other issues in the cable by testing the continuity and proper functioning of each wire pair. A tone generator and probe are used for locating cables and verifying their paths rather than diagnosing specific faults. A crimper is used for attaching connectors to cables, not for testing the integrity of connections. A loopback plug is primarily used for testing the functionality of network interfaces rather than the cables themselves. Therefore, a cable tester is the most appropriate tool for pinpointing shorts and other connectivity issues in the cable.
You’re connecting two buildings with fiber-optic cable. The cable must be installed through a conduit between the buildings, and access to the conduit is difficult. Before you run the cable, make sure it’s in good working condition. Which tool should you utilize?
Loopback plug.
Cable tester.
Tone generator and probe.
Multimeter
A cable tester is best for checking fiber-optic cables because it verifies signal quality, continuity, and potential faults along the entire length of the cable. A loopback plug tests only end connections, a tone generator and probe are for identifying cables rather than testing fiber, and a multimeter does not assess fiber-optic signals.
Users on your network report that a particular area of your building has poor wireless network access. They claim that the connection is slow and frequently disconnects. 802.11ac wireless routers and access points are being used. What tool should you employ to troubleshoot the problem?
Loopback plug.
Multimeter
Wi-Fi analyzer.
Tone generator and probe.
A Wi-Fi analyzer is the most suitable tool for troubleshooting poor wireless network access because it allows you to scan and analyze the wireless signals in the area to identify issues such as signal strength, interference, channel congestion, and network coverage. It provides detailed information about the performance of the wireless network and helps pinpoint problems affecting connectivity and speed. In contrast, a loopback plug is used for testing network interfaces and won’t help with wireless signal issues, a multimeter measures electrical properties and is not relevant for wireless network troubleshooting, and a tone generator and probe are used for tracing and identifying cables, which is also not applicable for diagnosing wireless network problems.
You need to replace a failed UTP cable. There are connectors and a spool of cable available, but no premade cables. Which tool is required to make a new cable?
Multimeter
Crimper and cable stripper.
Punchdown tool.
Toner probe.
To make a new UTP cable, you need a crimper and cable stripper because these tools are essential for properly preparing and connecting the cable. The cable stripper is used to remove the insulation from the ends of the cable without damaging the wires inside, while the crimper is used to attach the RJ45 connectors to the stripped cable ends, ensuring a secure and functional connection. A multimeter is used for measuring electrical properties and is not necessary for the physical assembly of the cable. A punchdown tool is used for terminating cables into patch panels or keystone jacks, not for making individual cables. A toner probe helps trace cables but is not relevant for creating new connections.
Which of the following statements about a network TAP is TRUE?
It is part of a router.
It is solely used by hackers to intercept packets.
It allows network admins to monitor network traffic.
TAP stands for terminal access point.
The correct statement is “It allows network admins to monitor network traffic” because a network TAP (Test Access Point) is designed to provide a way for administrators to capture and analyze network traffic without disrupting the network’s operation. It creates an exact copy of the data flowing through the network, which helps in troubleshooting, monitoring, and security analysis. The other statements are incorrect because a TAP is not part of a router, nor is it solely used by hackers; rather, it’s a legitimate tool for network monitoring. Additionally, TAP stands for “Test Access Point,” not “terminal access point,” reflecting its role in traffic observation and diagnostics.
Your buddy is having problems with his wifi network in his flat, which is dropping connections or running very slowly. What is the BEST tool for determining the optimal channel to use?
Toner probe
Wi-Fi analyzer.
WAP
Cable tester.
The best tool for finding the optimal Wi-Fi channel is a Wi-Fi analyzer. It scans for channel usage and interference from other networks, helping you choose the least congested channel. A toner probe, WAP, and cable tester serve different purposes: tracing cables, providing network access, and checking wired connections, respectively, and are not designed for analyzing Wi-Fi channels.
You are working in a telecoms room, installing a new network. Several network wires must be connected to a 110 block. What tool should you use to do this task?
Crimper
Punchdown tool.
Cable stripper
Cable tester.
For installing network wires into a 110 block, the appropriate tool is a punchdown tool. This tool is designed specifically for inserting the wires into the block’s insulation displacement connectors, ensuring a secure and reliable connection by pushing the wire into the contact points while trimming off excess wire. A crimper is used for attaching connectors to the ends of cables, a cable stripper is for removing insulation from cables, and a cable tester is used for verifying the integrity of the network connections after installation. Thus, while all these tools have their specific functions, the punchdown tool is essential for properly connecting wires to a 110 block.
Which Wi-Fi channels do NOT require your router to have Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) and Transmit Power Control (TPC) built in?
Channels 52 to 64.
Channels 36 to 48.
Channels 149-165.
Channels 100 to 144.
Channels 36 to 48 are correct because they fall within the 5 GHz band where Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) and Transmit Power Control (TPC) are not required. These channels are in the lower part of the 5 GHz spectrum, which does not overlap with the frequencies used by radar systems that necessitate DFS and TPC regulations. In contrast, Channels 52 to 64, Channels 100 to 144, and Channels 149 to 165 are in higher frequency ranges within the 5 GHz band that are subject to DFS and TPC requirements to avoid interference with radar systems and to manage power levels for better spectrum sharing.
You recently set up a wireless 802.11ac network for a client. The IT manager is concerned that competitors from outside the building would intercept the wireless connection. Which tool is intended to measure the range of your wireless signal?
Wi-Fi analyzer.
Tone generator and probe
Packet sniffer.
Protocol analyzer.
A Wi-Fi analyzer is the right tool for measuring wireless signal range because it provides data on signal strength and coverage areas. It helps assess how far the signal extends and identify any weak spots. In contrast, a tone generator and probe test cabling, a packet sniffer analyzes network traffic, and a protocol analyzer examines protocols but doesn’t measure signal strength.
On the network, you have a desktop that is not working properly. The wired connection frequently disconnects without warning. To diagnose the network adapter, which tool should you use?
Loopback plug.
Tone generator and probe.
Cable tester.
Multimeter
To diagnose a network adapter issue where the wired connection frequently disconnects, the Loopback plug is the most appropriate tool. This device is used to test the functionality of the network adapter by sending and receiving signals within the adapter itself, thereby identifying whether the issue lies with the adapter or elsewhere in the network. The Tone generator and probe is used for tracing cables and identifying connections rather than diagnosing adapter problems. A Cable tester checks the integrity and performance of network cables but does not test the network adapter itself. A Multimeter measures electrical properties like voltage and resistance but does not specifically test network adapter functionality. Therefore, the Loopback plug directly addresses potential issues with the network adapter by verifying its ability to transmit and receive data correctly.
A router uses what kind of address to send data to its destination?
Loopback
IP.
Memory
MAC
A router uses an IP address to send data to its destination because IP addresses are designed for routing data across networks. The IP address identifies the unique location of a device on a network, enabling routers to determine the best path for forwarding data. In contrast, a loopback address is used for testing network interfaces within the same device, not for routing data to external destinations. Memory is not relevant for addressing in data transmission, as it pertains to storage rather than addressing. MAC addresses, while crucial for local network communications at the data link layer, are not used for routing data across different networks, as they only identify devices on the same local network segment.
A wireless access point must be installed in a drop ceiling when there is no access to a power supply. Which technology will you use to power that device?
EOP
PoE
Repeater/extender
Hub
Power over Ethernet (PoE) is the correct technology for powering a wireless access point in a drop ceiling without access to a power supply. PoE allows electrical power to be transmitted along with data over standard Ethernet cables, eliminating the need for a separate power source. This is ideal for locations where power outlets are not available. In contrast, Ethernet over Power (EoP) involves using existing electrical wiring to transmit data and is not typically used for powering devices. Repeaters or extenders are designed to extend the range of a network signal but do not provide power, and a hub simply connects multiple network devices without offering any power capabilities. Thus, PoE is the most suitable solution for powering the access point in this scenario.
You are a network administrator. The corporate network does not yet have wireless connection, but the company is purchasing tablets so that employees may have their work with them as they wander about the facility. What device will you install to allow employees to connect to the wired network via wireless devices?
NFC hub.
WAP
Ethernet router.
Proxy server.
The correct device to install for allowing employees to connect to the wired network via wireless devices is a Wireless Access Point (WAP). A WAP enables wireless devices, like tablets, to connect to a wired network by providing a wireless network interface that bridges the connection between wireless clients and the wired infrastructure. The other options are incorrect: an NFC hub is used for short-range communication between devices, not for network access; an Ethernet router primarily manages network traffic and routing between wired connections but does not provide wireless access; and a proxy server is used for managing and filtering internet requests, not for establishing wireless connectivity.
Except for network extension, which network connectivity device is rarely utilized in modern networks?
Router
Hub
Switch
Bridge
In modern networks, hubs are rarely used because they broadcast data to all connected devices, causing congestion and security issues. In contrast, switches send data only to the intended recipient, and routers and bridges manage and optimize network traffic more effectively. Therefore, hubs are considered outdated compared to these more advanced devices.
Which of the following devices is found in a telecommunications room and allows horizontal wiring to be gathered, with each run terminating in a female port?
Multiplexer
Demarcation point.
Rack U.
Patch panel.
A patch panel is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to manage and organize horizontal wiring in a telecommunications room, with each cable run terminating in a female port, allowing for easy connectivity and reconfiguration. A multiplexer, on the other hand, combines multiple signals into one, rather than organizing wiring. The demarcation point is the point where the service provider’s network ends and the customer’s network begins, and it does not involve organizing horizontal wiring. Rack U refers to the vertical space in a server rack where equipment is mounted but does not pertain to wiring management. Thus, the patch panel is the appropriate device for gathering and terminating horizontal cabling.
Because there isn’t a suitable power receptacle close enough to plug a wireless access point (WAP) into in a loading dock, you choose to utilize a POE WAP instead. However, your switch is not PoE compliant. What must you buy in addition to the PoE WAP?
A very long extension cord.
A new router.
A PoE injector.
A new switch.
To power a PoE (Power over Ethernet) WAP (Wireless Access Point) when your switch does not support PoE, you need a PoE injector. A PoE injector adds power to the Ethernet cable, allowing it to deliver both data and power to the WAP. This solution is practical because it enables you to use your existing non-PoE switch without the expense and hassle of replacing it with a PoE-compliant switch. Using a very long extension cord does not solve the power-over-Ethernet requirement, a new router is unnecessary since it does not address the power issue, and replacing the switch is a more costly option compared to simply adding a PoE injector.
Which of the following benefits of software-defined networking (SDN) is NOT true?
Centrally manage physical and virtual routers.
Reduced infrastructure costs.
Requires a cloud-based network.
Dynamic load balancing.
The statement “Requires a cloud-based network” is incorrect regarding the benefits of software-defined networking (SDN) because SDN does not inherently require a cloud-based network. SDN enables centralized management of both physical and virtual routers, offers reduced infrastructure costs through efficient network resource allocation, and supports dynamic load balancing by adjusting network traffic based on real-time needs. While SDN can be implemented in cloud environments, it is not dependent on them; it can also be deployed in traditional on-premises data centers or hybrid environments. The other statements accurately reflect SDN’s capabilities and benefits.
A wireless router must be configured for an office network. The office manager desires that new devices automatically join the network and broadcast their presence to other networked devices. Which service should you enable to make this possible?
DHCP
UPnP
QoS
NAT
To enable new devices to automatically join the network and broadcast their presence to other networked devices, you should enable UPnP (Universal Plug and Play). UPnP facilitates automatic discovery and configuration of devices on the network, allowing new devices to seamlessly integrate and communicate with existing ones. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is responsible for assigning IP addresses to devices but does not handle the broadcasting of devices’ presence. QoS (Quality of Service) manages network traffic prioritization but does not address device discovery. NAT (Network Address Translation) translates private IP addresses to a public IP address and vice versa, but it does not provide device discovery capabilities. Hence, UPnP is the correct choice for the desired functionality.
Bob has a device that operates at a frequency of 5 GHz. He is unable to connect his device to a LAN that he has not previously accessed, despite having checked that he has the correct password. What kind of network could cause this issue?
802.11g
802.11ax
802.11ac
802.11n
The issue Bob is encountering is likely due to the network operating on 802.11g, which is a Wi-Fi standard that only operates on the 2.4 GHz band. Since his device operates at a frequency of 5 GHz, it is not compatible with 802.11g networks. In contrast, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax standards support both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, so they would be able to connect with devices that operate on the 5 GHz frequency. Therefore, if Bob’s device is unable to connect, it suggests that the LAN might be using 802.11g, which does not support the 5 GHz frequency.
Which of the following features does NOT necessitate the use of a managed network switch?
Port mirroring.
Direct packets out the proper port.
VLAN configuration.
Priority of traffic.
“Direct packets out the proper port” does not necessitate the use of a managed network switch because this functionality is inherent to basic, unmanaged switches which use simple, hardware-based methods to forward packets based on MAC address tables. In contrast, features such as port mirroring, VLAN configuration, and traffic prioritization require a managed switch due to their complexity. Port mirroring involves replicating traffic from one port to another for monitoring, VLAN configuration requires advanced settings to segment network traffic into different virtual networks, and traffic prioritization involves managing Quality of Service (QoS) to ensure critical traffic is given precedence. These advanced capabilities are beyond the scope of unmanaged switches, which lack the configuration options and management interfaces required to implement them effectively.
Which of the following network connectivity devices runs at the OSI model’s Layer 2?
Cable
Switch
Hub
Router
A switch operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, which is the Data Link layer, because it uses MAC addresses to forward data between devices within the same network segment. It intelligently directs traffic based on these addresses, allowing for efficient data transfer and reducing collisions. In contrast, a hub operates at Layer 1, the Physical layer, and simply broadcasts incoming data to all ports without any address-based filtering. A router works at Layer 3, the Network layer, handling IP addresses to route data between different networks. Cables, on the other hand, are a physical medium and do not operate at any OSI layer; they simply transmit the data signals.
Which network device is intended to act as a security guard, preventing malicious data from accessing your network?
EoP device
Firewall
PoE injector
Router
A firewall is designed to prevent malicious data accessing your network by filtering traffic based on security rules. In contrast, an EoP device extends network connectivity over electrical wiring, a PoE injector supplies power to network devices, and a router directs traffic between networks without focusing specifically on security.
_____________marks the boundary of an IPv4 broadcast domain.
Switch
Hub
Router
Modem
A router defines the boundary of an IPv4 broadcast domain by preventing broadcast traffic from crossing into other networks, thus separating different broadcast domains. In contrast, switches and hubs do not segment broadcast domains; switches forward broadcasts within the same VLAN, and hubs broadcast to all connected devices. A modem, which primarily converts signals for communication, does not affect broadcast domains.
Which networking device contains several ports, each with its own collision domain, and checks the incoming packet’s header to identify which port the packet is forwarded to?
Router
Hub
Switch
Bridge
A switch is the correct answer because it operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and manages multiple ports, each with its own collision domain, which means it can handle multiple simultaneous communications without interference. When a switch receives a packet, it examines the packet’s header to determine the destination MAC address and then forwards the packet to the specific port associated with that address, effectively reducing network collisions and improving performance. In contrast, a router operates at the network layer (Layer 3) and is used to route packets between different networks, not just within one. A hub broadcasts packets to all ports, resulting in a single collision domain for the entire network, and a bridge, while it can segment a network into different collision domains, does not have the same level of efficiency in handling and directing traffic as a switch.
Which network connectivity device does NOT forward broadcast messages, resulting in the formation of several broadcast domains?
Router
Switch
Bridge
Hub
A router is the correct device for not forwarding broadcast messages, which leads to the creation of multiple broadcast domains. Unlike switches, which forward broadcast messages to all ports within a single broadcast domain, routers separate broadcast domains by only forwarding traffic to the intended destination network based on IP addresses. Bridges, which operate at the data link layer, forward broadcast messages between segments of the same network, thereby not separating broadcast domains. Hubs, being simple repeaters, broadcast messages to all connected devices, not segmenting the network into different broadcast domains. Therefore, routers effectively reduce broadcast traffic by creating separate broadcast domains, whereas switches, bridges, and hubs do not.
Which networking device can read IP addresses and route packets based on their destination IP address?
Switch
Router
Hub
NIC
A router is the correct choice because it is specifically designed to read IP addresses and route packets based on their destination IP address. It operates at Layer 3 (the Network layer) of the OSI model, where it can make forwarding decisions based on IP address information. In contrast, a switch operates at Layer 2 (the Data Link layer) and routes packets based on MAC addresses, not IP addresses. A hub, operating at Layer 1 (the Physical layer), simply broadcasts data to all connected devices without any consideration of IP addresses. A Network Interface Card (NIC) is responsible for connecting a device to a network and handling data at Layer 2, but it does not route packets; it only forwards them to the appropriate network segment.
Which of the following is an example of a PoE standard?
802.3b
802.1lax
802.3bt
802.11
**802.3bt** is a PoE (Power over Ethernet) standard because it is specifically designed to provide both data and power over Ethernet cables, supporting higher power levels than previous standards. The other options are incorrect because **802.3b** is not a standard; **802.1lax** is not related to PoE but rather deals with network security; and **802.11** pertains to Wi-Fi standards, not Ethernet power delivery. Thus, **802.3bt** is the only standard among the choices that addresses PoE functionalities.
What is the maximum allowable distance between a power over Ethernet injector and an Ethernet device on a 1000BaseT network?
450 meters
50 meters
100 meters
250 meters
The maximum allowable distance between a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector and an Ethernet device on a 1000BaseT network is 100 meters. This limitation is due to the specifications of the 1000BaseT standard, which governs Gigabit Ethernet over twisted pair cables. The 100-meter distance ensures reliable data transmission by accommodating signal attenuation and ensuring signal integrity within the constraints of the Ethernet cable’s performance. Distances beyond this limit, such as 450 meters, 250 meters, or even 50 meters, either exceed the capacity of the standard (resulting in potential signal degradation and network errors) or are unnecessarily short, providing no additional benefit.
Which of the following technologies will allow you to install networking devices that require power to operate in an area with no power outlets?
Hub
EOP
PoE
WAP
POE, or Power over Ethernet, is the correct technology because it allows networking devices to receive both data and power through a single Ethernet cable, eliminating the need for a separate power outlet. This is particularly useful in areas where power outlets are unavailable. On the other hand, a Hub (a basic networking device) does not provide power and relies on external power sources; EoP (Ethernet over Power) transmits data over electrical wiring but does not provide power to the networking device; and WAP (Wireless Access Point) might require a power outlet unless it supports POE. Therefore, POE is the most suitable option for powering devices without accessible power outlets.
____TCP/IP protocol employs port 445.
SMB
FTP
SNMP
SSH
Port 445 is used by the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol for network file sharing and related operations, allowing applications to read and write to files and request services from server programs. It bypasses the older NetBIOS over TCP/IP, which traditionally used ports 137-139. In contrast, FTP (File Transfer Protocol) typically uses ports 20 and 21, SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses port 161, and SSH (Secure Shell) uses port 22. Thus, SMB is the correct protocol associated with port 445, while the others operate on different ports.
Your small office has frequent visitors. For security concerns, you wish to offer a separate VLAN to segregate visitor traffic from your network traffic. What is the minimum connectivity device required to make this happen?
Managed switch.
Bridge
Unmanaged switch.
Hub
To segregate visitor traffic from your network traffic via VLANs, a managed switch is required. A managed switch allows you to configure VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) and assign different VLANs to different ports, enabling the separation of visitor and network traffic. This capability is essential for maintaining security and managing traffic effectively. An unmanaged switch does not support VLAN configuration and hence cannot provide the necessary segregation. A hub, being a basic device, simply broadcasts all traffic to all ports and lacks VLAN capabilities, making it unsuitable for this purpose. A bridge, while capable of connecting two network segments, does not inherently support VLANs and cannot manage traffic separation on its own. Thus, the managed switch is the only device among the options that can effectively create and manage VLANs for traffic segregation.
What type of system is used to operate and monitor industrial machines and processes, which consists of both hardware and software?
UTM
SCADA
RADIUS
IrDA
SCADA, or Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition, is the correct system used to operate and monitor industrial machines and processes, as it integrates both hardware and software to facilitate real-time control, monitoring, and data collection. SCADA systems are designed for industrial environments, enabling operators to supervise and manage complex processes from a central location. In contrast, UTM (Unified Threat Management) pertains to network security, RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) deals with authentication and access control, and IrDA (Infrared Data Association) focuses on short-range, wireless communication. Therefore, SCADA uniquely fits the requirement for overseeing industrial operations.
Managing security on your expanding network has gotten difficult, so you inquire about what your peers are doing to manage their networks. They recommend a device that allows you to handle your security from a single location. What have they suggested?
IDS
UTP
UTM
IPS
Your peers are likely recommending a Unified Threat Management (UTM) device because it integrates multiple security features into a single solution, allowing you to manage and monitor your network’s security from a single location. Unlike Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS), which focus primarily on detecting and preventing specific threats respectively, UTM provides a broader range of security functions such as firewall protection, antivirus, anti-spam, and intrusion detection/prevention within one system. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) is not a security device but rather a type of networking cable, making it unsuitable for network security management. Thus, UTM is the most comprehensive choice for streamlined, centralized network security management.
What kind of server allows Internet access to company-provided information such as contact information, items or services for sale, and other information?
FTP server
Web server
Proxy server
File server
A Web server is the correct choice for allowing Internet access to company-provided information such as contact details, products or services, and other content because it hosts and delivers web pages and applications over the HTTP or HTTPS protocols. Unlike an FTP server, which is designed for transferring files using the File Transfer Protocol, a Web server serves content directly to users’ web browsers. A Proxy server, on the other hand, acts as an intermediary between users and the internet, often for security or performance reasons, rather than hosting information. Similarly, a File server is designed for storing and managing files within a network but does not typically provide public access to information over the internet.
The most likely method for a homeowner’s IoT devices to connect to their wireless network is DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). DHCP automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network, simplifying their connection process by eliminating the need for manual configuration. SSO (Single Sign-On) and AD (Active Directory) are primarily used for authentication and directory services in enterprise environments rather than for device connectivity. DNS (Domain Name System) is used to resolve domain names into IP addresses but does not handle IP address allocation for devices. Therefore, DHCP is the correct choice as it directly facilitates the automatic and seamless connection of IoT devices to the network.
SSO
AD
DHCP
DNS
The most likely method for a homeowner’s IoT devices to connect to their wireless network is DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). DHCP automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network, simplifying their connection process by eliminating the need for manual configuration. SSO (Single Sign-On) and AD (Active Directory) are primarily used for authentication and directory services in enterprise environments rather than for device connectivity. DNS (Domain Name System) is used to resolve domain names into IP addresses but does not handle IP address allocation for devices. Therefore, DHCP is the correct choice as it directly facilitates the automatic and seamless connection of IoT devices to the network.
What service is capable of collecting and journaling all system-generated messages generated by servers and network devices?
Syslog server
Authentication server.
Print server.
DNS server.
A Syslog server is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to collect, store, and manage log messages generated by servers, network devices, and other systems. Syslog operates using a standardized protocol for sending log or event messages, which allows it to centralize and organize system-generated messages for monitoring and analysis. In contrast, an Authentication server primarily handles user authentication and access control, a Print server manages print jobs and printers, and a DNS server resolves domain names to IP addresses. None of these services are designed to collect and journal system-generated messages in the way a Syslog server does.
What kind of service will a corporation install to monitor network traffic or host system behavior in order to identify suspicious activity?
UTM
Proxy server
ATM
IDS
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is designed specifically to monitor network traffic or host system behavior to identify suspicious or malicious activity, making it the correct choice for this purpose. Unlike a Unified Threat Management (UTM) system, which integrates multiple security functions into one solution but may not focus solely on monitoring, or a proxy server, which primarily handles requests and manages network traffic, an IDS is dedicated to detecting and alerting on potential threats. An Automated Teller Machine (ATM) is irrelevant to network or host monitoring as it is used for financial transactions. Thus, the IDS is the specialized tool needed for real-time threat detection and analysis.
When configuring your network, you enabled your clients to automatically get IP addressing information from a DHCP server. Which configuration items may the DHCP server offer?
IP address and subnet mask.
IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.
IP address.
IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address.
The DHCP server offers a range of configuration items including the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address because these components are essential for a client to fully participate in network communication. The IP address allows the client to be uniquely identified on the network, the subnet mask determines the network’s boundary and helps in addressing within the subnet, the default gateway facilitates communication with devices outside the local network, and the DNS server address enables the resolution of domain names into IP addresses. While an IP address alone might enable basic connectivity, without the subnet mask and default gateway, a client would struggle with routing and communicating beyond its local network. The DNS server address is also crucial for resolving domain names, which is necessary for most internet-based activities. Thus, offering just one or two of these items would result in incomplete network configuration.
What server is used to convert domain names to IP addresses in order to ease online browsing or the location of a directory resource on the network?
Syslog server.
DNS server.
Authentication server.
Print server
The DNS server is the correct answer because it translates human-readable domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses, which are required for locating resources on the internet or a network. This process facilitates seamless online browsing and resource access. In contrast, a Syslog server is used for collecting and managing log data from various network devices, an Authentication server manages user credentials and access permissions, and a Print server manages print jobs and printer resources on a network. None of these functions involve the translation of domain names to IP addresses.
You’re a network administrator, and you’ve recently installed a device to your network that allows numerous users to access several printers. What did you attach to the network?
DNS server
Authentication server.
Print server
Syslog server.
A Print server is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to manage and control the use of printers within a network, allowing multiple users to send print jobs to various printers efficiently. It handles print queue management, printer configuration, and job scheduling. The other options are not suitable for this role: a DNS server translates domain names to IP addresses, an Authentication server manages user access and credentials, and a Syslog server collects and stores log messages from network devices, none of which pertain to managing printer access or functionality.