After a breach exposed private keys for the organization?s certificates, what immediate action should Selah take?

Replace the certificates with wildcard certificates.

Reissue the certificates with changed hostnames and other details.

Replace the certificates with self?signed certificates until the vendor can replace them.

Revoke the certificates and place them on a certificate revocation list.

Compromised private keys mean the certs can no longer be trusted. Immediate mitigation is to revoke them (CRL/OCSP) to alert relying parties, then generate new keypairs and reissue fresh certificates. Wildcards/self?signed do not address the compromise.

Among the provided options, which one is typically NOT considered a step when a transaction is recorded in a blockchain?

The transaction is sent to a peer?to?peer network of computers.

The transaction is validated using equations.

A transaction history is maintained as part of the blockchain.

The value of the block is determined.

Blockchain steps include broadcasting the transaction, validating it via consensus/cryptographic verification, and appending it to the chain (creating an immutable history). There is no step where a ?block value? is determined; that wording doesn?t reflect standard blockchain operations.

Which activity is NOT typically observed as a common post?change practice?

Updating policies

Updating procedures

Updating diagrams.

Updating contracts.

Post?change tasks normally include updating procedures/runbooks, architecture/flow diagrams, and sometimes policies if the change meaningfully affects governance. Contract updates are vendor/procurement actions and are not a standard post?change activity.

Elaine wants to record technical concerns from dependencies. Which is typically the MOST prevalent concern?

Patching the dependencies in addition to the main application

Updating diagrams related to the dependencies.

Documenting the dependencies to ensure they are addressed.

Removing the dependencies as part of the change.

The most common technical issue with dependencies is ensuring dependent libraries/services are compatible and up to date; changes often require patching or upgrading those components too so the main application functions correctly and securely.

During an application upgrade, which one is NOT typically considered a common stakeholder or stakeholder group?

System administrators.

Service owners.

Application administrators.

Auditors.

Typical stakeholders include those who operate, own, or rely on the system?admins, service owners, app owners, and business users. Auditors review controls and compliance periodically but aren?t generally part of day?to?day upgrade stakeholder groups.

As Jackie conducts an impact analysis before her team proceeds with a significant change, which of the following groups is typically NOT included in the impact analysis process?

System administrators

Legal counsel.

Stakeholders.

Service owners.

Impact analysis primarily involves technical and business stakeholders who understand systems and services affected (system administrators, service/application owners, operations, security). Legal counsel is consulted for regulatory/contractual issues but is not a routine participant for most technical change impact reviews.

Which of the following is a key element of change management processes?

Ownership.

Backout plan.

Impact analysis.

Test results.

Every change must have a clearly identified owner accountable for coordination, communication, and outcomes; ownership drives responsibility across related activities like impact analysis, testing, and rollback.

What is the purpose of a backout plan in change management processes?

To analyze the impact of changes.

To document the test results.

To revert changes in case of issues.

To define ownership of the changes.

A backout (rollback) plan provides the predefined, tested steps to return systems to a known-good state if a change causes instability, outages, or security problems.

How can stakeholders contribute to change management processes?

By analyzing test results.

By creating a backout plan.

By defining ownership.

By providing feedback and approvals.

Stakeholders review proposed changes for business and security impact, provide feedback, and grant approvals, ensuring the change aligns with requirements and risk appetite before implementation.

Which of the following is a potential security risk associated with unplanned downtime caused by a poorly managed change process?

Decreased network performance.

Decreased employee productivity.

Increased risk of unauthorized access.

Increased risk of social engineering attacks.

Emergency fixes and misconfigurations during unplanned downtime can bypass controls or leave systems in insecure states, creating opportunities for unauthorized access; the other choices are operational, not primary security risks.

Which of the following is NOT a component of change management processes impacting security operation?

Incident response analysis.

Stakeholders.

Approval process.

Impact analysis.

Change management focuses on planning, approvals, stakeholder communication, impact/risk analysis, testing, and rollback; incident response analysis belongs to post-incident processes, not standard change steps.

What is the purpose of maintenance windows in change management processes?

To shorten the time for change implementation.

To prevent any changes from happening.

To extend the time for change implementation.

To schedule system updates and changes.

Maintenance windows confine changes to preapproved, lower-impact periods with communication and rollback plans in place, minimizing business disruption and security exposure.

Which of the following is NOT typically a common rationale for implementing key escrow?

Providing access to encrypted data for administrative reasons.

Providing access to encrypted data in emergencies.

Regulatory compliance.

Preventing the need for key rotation after a user leaves.

Key escrow enables emergency/authorized recovery and can satisfy compliance by ensuring data access under defined controls. It doesn?t eliminate good hygiene like rotating keys/credentials when users leave or roles change.

How do allow lists and deny lists impact security in change management processes?

By automatically implementing changes.

By notifying users of upcoming changes.

By controlling access and permissions changes.

By delaying the approval process.

Allow/deny lists define what is explicitly permitted or prohibited?who can make changes and which applications, hosts, or scripts are authorized?reducing the risk of unauthorized or dangerous modifications.

What role do dependencies play in change management processes?

Creating isolated changes.

Removing the need for coordination.

Ensuring coordinated changes.

Ignoring change impacts.

Mapping dependencies reveals upstream/downstream systems and security controls affected by a change, allowing sequencing, approvals, and scheduling that prevent conflicts and outages.

Why is updating diagrams important in change management processes?

To introduce errors in documentation.

To increase approval time for changes.

To accurately reflect system changes.

To delay change implementation.

Current network, dataflow, and architecture diagrams ensure everyone understands dependencies, security boundaries, and impact, enabling proper risk assessment, communication, and troubleshooting.

What is the purpose of version control in change management processes?

To avoid documenting changes.

To track changes and maintain historical records.

To prevent changes altogether

To randomly implement changes.

Version control records who changed what and when, maintains revision history, supports comparison/rollback, and ensures accountability?core needs for disciplined change management and auditability.

By configuring an ACL to restrict access to a service based on specific IP addresses, what type of control has Frank implemented?

Technical.

Managerial.

Operational.

Physical.

Access control lists are enforced by systems and network devices, making them technical controls. Functionally they?re preventive because they block unauthorized connections according to policy.

Which option is a corrective control Marty can deploy to address a recently compromised system?

Enabling logging and sending logs to a SIEM.

Deploying full-disk encryption.

Deploying an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool.

Patching the vulnerability that allowed the compromise to occur.

Corrective controls fix the underlying problem revealed by an incident. Applying the patch removes the exploited flaw; logging and EDR are detective/preventive, and FDE protects confidentiality at rest rather than fixing the exploited issue.

Jason proposes installing supplementary exterior lighting. In terms of security controls, what category does lighting fall under?

Technical.

Operational.

Deterrent.

Corrective.

Lighting is a physical measure that discourages illicit activity by increasing visibility and the perceived chance of detection. In the functional sense used here, it?s categorized as a deterrent control.

In control categories, log monitoring falls under which classification?

Technical.

Physical.

Managerial.

Operational.

Logging and monitoring are implemented by software and systems (agents, collectors, SIEM) and are commonly categorized as technical detective controls. While humans may review the output operationally, the control itself is technology-driven.

What category or classification does a policy or procedure fall into?

Preventive.

Detective.

Directive.

Corrective.

Policies, standards, and procedures direct behavior and define required actions. They don?t enforce or detect by themselves; they provide the rules and steps others follow.

After attackers obtained an SSL private key, Angela?s team generated a new CSR and secured a new private key. What control type best characterizes this?

Corrective.

Detective.

Compensating.

Deterrent.

Replacing compromised keys and certificates is a remedial action that restores the cryptographic trust chain. It?s done after an incident to return to a secure state, which is corrective in nature.

Which data obfuscation technique uses a lookup table to associate protected data with a randomly generated value so the true value remains hidden?

Hashing.

Masking.

Tokenization.

Randomization.

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with a non?sensitive token and stores the original?to?token mapping in a secure token vault (lookup table). Hashing is one?way and irreversible, and masking only hides portions of the data for display.

Conducting regular risk assessments primarily falls under which category of control?

Managerial.

Operational.

Technical.

Physical.

Risk assessments are governance and oversight activities used to set priorities and policy. They?re administrative/managerial, informing the selection and tuning of operational and technical controls.

After discovering a vulnerability on an embedded device, Alice sets up a firewall and uses rules to limit access to the vulnerable service. What control type is this?

A directive control.

A procedural control.

A detective control.

A compensating control.

When the primary fix (e.g., patching) isn?t immediately feasible, an alternate safeguard is implemented to achieve equivalent risk reduction. Segmenting/limiting traffic via firewall rules is a textbook compensating control for vulnerable systems.

A policy mandates immediate password reset and account lockout upon confirmed phishing. What type of control is this policy?

A detective control.

A preventive control.

A directive control.

A compensating control.

The policy instructs exactly what actions must be taken when a condition is met; that?s directive. While the acts of lockout/reset support prevention/correction, the policy itself is the directive guidance.

Implementing a file integrity monitoring tool with alerts for file modifications falls under which control type?

Preventive.

Preventive.

Detective.

Directive.

File integrity monitoring (FIM) compares current file states to known-good baselines and alerts on unexpected changes. That?s detection?providing visibility so responders can investigate and take corrective or preventive actions.

In response to a ransomware attack, Henry?s organization is restoring backups from a secure backup system. What category of control does this action fall under?

A preventive control.

A directive control.

A corrective control.

A compensating control.

Recovery from backups is a classic corrective control?used after an incident to recover data and restore service availability. It complements preventive controls (like hardening and MFA) that aim to stop incidents up front.

After a breach, Jackie removes malicious software from a server. How should she categorize this action?

Compensating.

Corrective.

Preventive.

Deterrent.

Corrective controls restore systems to a secure state after an incident. Removing malware repairs the damage and returns the server to normal operation; it doesn?t by itself prevent or merely detect an attack.

What type of control is John contemplating when he intends to draft a procedure outlining the appropriate course of action if an employee reveals their password due to phishing?

A deterrent control.

A proactive control.

A preventive control.

A directive control.

Procedures and playbooks that tell staff what to do are directive controls. They guide actions during specific scenarios (like post?phishing response), whereas preventive and deterrent controls try to stop or discourage incidents and ?proactive? isn?t a standard Security+ control type.

Among the given options, which one is NOT categorized as a managerial control?

Risk assessments.

Including security in change management processes.

Security planning exercises.

Implementing firewalls.

Managerial (administrative) controls are policy, governance, and oversight activities?risk assessments, security planning, and embedding security in change management all fit that bucket. Implementing a firewall is a technology-based enforcement mechanism, making it a technical control, not a managerial one.

Elizabeth aims to categorize the following controls. Which category is MOST appropriate for classifying lighting, fences, bollards, and access control vestibules?

Physical.

Operational.

Managerial.

Technical.

Lighting, fencing, bollards, and mantraps/vestibules are tangible measures that shape the physical environment to deter, delay, and control access. Because they involve hardware and infrastructure in the real world, they?re categorized as physical controls.

What type of control has Kendra’s team proposed when they recommend moving vulnerable, unsupported IoT devices to an isolated network as a protective measure?

A corrective control.

A compensating control.

A confidentiality control.

A coordinated control.

Network isolation (segmentation) is a classic compensating control when primary protections?like vendor patches?are unavailable. It reduces exposure and limits potential impact by restricting communications, providing an alternate means to achieve an acceptable level of risk.

Which of the following capabilities is less likely to be offered by Rick?s cloud provider?s dedicated hardware security module?

Encrypting and decrypting data.

Creating digital signatures.

Key generation.

Validating secure boot processes.

HSMs excel at key generation, secure storage, encryption/decryption, and signing operations. Secure/verified boot validation is typically anchored by device?resident components (e.g., TPM/firmware) rather than a cloud HSM service.

A security policy that outlines the acceptable use of company resources is an example of which type of security control?

Operational.

Managerial.

Technical.

Physical.

Acceptable Use Policies and similar governance documents are managerial (administrative) controls. They set expectations, define rules, and direct how technology and processes should be used, forming the foundation for operational and technical enforcement.

How do compensating controls differ from corrective controls?

Corrective controls are always more effective than compensating controls.

Compensating controls focus on prevention, while corrective controls focus on detection.

Compensating controls provide alternatives, while corrective controls address root causes.

Compensating controls are cheaper than corrective controls.

Compensating controls are alternate safeguards used when a primary control is not feasible (e.g., segmenting a system when patching isn?t possible). Corrective controls focus on recovery and remediation?addressing the underlying issue so normal operations and security posture are restored.

What type of security control is represented by security guards at the entrance of a building?

Physical.

Preventive.

Technical.

Operational.

Guards are a physical control because they involve human presence and physical interaction with a site. They can deter, detect, and even prevent entry, but their primary classification is physical rather than technical or purely procedural.

When security controls monitor and alert on suspicious activities, they are classified as what type of controls?

Physical.

Detective.

Operational.

Preventive.

Monitoring and alerting functions (e.g., IDS, SIEM rules, log analysis) detect anomalous or malicious activity and notify responders. These controls don?t stop the event by themselves; they provide visibility so corrective and preventive measures can follow.

In the context of security controls, which type focuses on reducing the likelihood of a security incident?

Directive.

Compensating.

Deterrent.

Corrective.

Deterrent controls (e.g., signage, visible guards, lighting) are intended to discourage malicious behavior so that an attack is less likely to be attempted. They influence attacker decision-making; they don?t block actions (preventive) or fix damage (corrective).

Which type of security control provides explicit instructions on how to respond to security incidents?

Compensating.

Directive.

Preventive.

Detective.

Directive controls are policies, standards, SOPs, and playbooks that tell personnel exactly what to do. Incident response plans and procedures guide actions during incidents, shaping behavior but not directly enforcing or detecting anything by themselves.

When a security control modifies an employee’s access rights based on their job role, it is an example of which type of control?

Preventive.

Corrective.

Deterrent.

Directive.

Adjusting privileges to match a user?s current role remedies over? or under?provisioning discovered through reviews or role changes, restoring the environment to a proper, secure state. While RBAC in general helps prevent misuse, the specific act of modifying access rights is corrective because it fixes an identified mismatch.

A security audit is an example of which type of security control?

Technical.

Managerial.

Physical.

Operational.

Security audits are people- and process-driven activities that assess how controls are implemented and used in day-to-day operations. They verify compliance and effectiveness rather than enforcing technology by themselves. In the common Security+ taxonomy, that places audits in the operational (administrative) category.

What category of security control focuses on the implementation of security tools and technologies?

Physical.

Managerial.

Operational.

Technical.

Technical controls are implemented through hardware and software?firewalls, IDS/IPS, EDR, encryption, DLP, and configuration baselines. They directly enforce policy via technology rather than through people/process (operational) or governance/policy (managerial), and they are distinct from physical measures like locks and fences.

Which type of security control provides a secondary measure when primary controls are insufficient or not feasible?

Detective.

Compensating.

Preventive.

Directive.

Compensating controls are alternative safeguards that achieve an equivalent level of security when a primary or required control can?t be implemented. Examples include increased monitoring when technical segmentation isn?t possible, or strong logging and reconciliation in lieu of strict segregation of duties. They help satisfy policy or compliance objectives pragmatically.

To authenticate and verify an encrypted and digitally signed message utilizing asymmetric encryption, what component does Derrick require from the message sender for validation?

The sender?s private key.

The sender?s public key.

Derrick?s private key.

Derrick?s public key.

The sender signs with their private key; recipients validate the signature with the sender?s public key, ensuring authenticity and integrity. If the message was also encrypted to Derrick, he uses his own private key to decrypt?but signature verification specifically requires the sender?s public key.

What type of security control is a firewall?

Technical preventive.

Operational detective.

Managerial.

Physical deterrent.

Firewalls are technological mechanisms that filter packets/flows according to policy, preventing unauthorized access and many classes of attacks at network boundaries. Because they proactively block suspicious or disallowed traffic, they?re preventive. They are not administrative (managerial) or physical controls.

Which security control type focuses on reducing the risk of a security incident?

Preventive.

Directive.

Detective.

Corrective.

Preventive controls lower the probability of an incident by stopping or limiting threats before they materialize?think firewalls, MFA, access control lists, and hardened configurations. Detective controls only find issues after the fact, and corrective controls help recover. Directive controls set expectations or rules but don?t directly reduce risk on their own.

What type of security control is surveillance cameras in a data center?

Managerial compensating.

Operational corrective.

Physical detective.

Technical directive.

CCTV/video cameras are physical controls that observe and record activity, enabling detection and investigation of incidents. They can deter to some degree, but their core function is to detect and document what occurs in the environment. They?re not policies (managerial) or software-based enforcement (technical).

Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are an example of which security control type?

Compensating.

Preventive.

Detective.

Deterrent.

IDS tools monitor traffic or host activity and alert on suspicious patterns, providing visibility into potential compromises. They don?t enforce blocks (that?s the IPS/preventive role); instead they detect and report events requiring investigation. As such, they are classic detective controls.

Which security control type involves using RAID technology for data redundancy?

Detective.

Compensating.

Corrective.

Preventive.

RAID provides redundancy so that when a disk fails, the system can rebuild or continue operating without data loss, effectively correcting the failure. It does not detect attacks nor block them; instead, it enables recovery and continuity after a hardware fault. That places it squarely in the corrective/availability realm.

Which security control type involves using security guards to monitor access to a facility?

Operational preventive.

Technical detective.

Managerial corrective.

Physical deterrent.

Security guards are a physical presence that discourages (deters) unauthorized activity and can challenge entrants at doors. While guards can also perform detection and prevention tasks, their primary characterization in control taxonomies is a physical deterrent?using visibility and authority to reduce the chance that an attempt is made in the first place.

Which security control type involves the use of encryption to protect data in transit?

Technical preventive.

Managerial deterrent.

Operational directive.

Physical detective.

Encryption is a technical control implemented via cryptographic protocols (TLS, IPsec, SSH) to prevent eavesdropping and tampering while data moves over networks. It reduces the likelihood and impact of interception (a preventive function) by ensuring confidentiality and integrity. This isn?t an administrative policy or physical measure; it?s enforced by technology.

Which security control type involves conducting regular audits and vulnerability assessments?

Corrective.

Operational detective.

Managerial preventive.

Compensating.

Audits and vulnerability assessments are detective controls because they discover weaknesses or noncompliance after or as operations occur. They?re ?operational? since they?re carried out through procedures and people using tools and checklists, rather than by a technology enforcing a block. These activities don?t stop attacks on their own; they surface issues so corrective and preventive actions can follow.

What security control type involves implementing a business continuity plan?

Compensating.

Operational detective.

Preventive

Managerial corrective.

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is an administrative (managerial) control that outlines how to respond and recover after a disruption, making it corrective in nature. It doesn?t directly prevent incidents; instead it coordinates processes, roles, and resources to restore critical functions and mitigate operational impact following an event.

To address the objective of minimizing the potential impact of compromised credentials, which security control from the following options is MOST suitable for achieving this goal?

Single sign-on.

Zero trust.

Multifactor authentication (MFA).

Federation.

Zero trust reduces the blast radius of stolen credentials by enforcing least privilege, microsegmentation, continuous verification, and policy checks at each request, limiting lateral movement and high-value resource access. MFA helps reduce the likelihood of compromise, but if credentials are already compromised it does not inherently limit post-compromise spread; SSO/federation address usability and cross-domain access, not impact containment.

Which option is NOT typically recognized as a common transport encryption protocol?

SAML.

IPsec.

TLS.

SSH.

IPsec (network layer), TLS (application layer), and SSH (secure remote/tunnel) provide transport/channel encryption. SAML is an identity federation/authorization assertion protocol, not a transport encryption mechanism.

Quentin intends to implement a single sign-on system to enable his users to log in to cloud services. Among the following technologies, which one is he MOST LIKELY to deploy?

Kerberos.

TACACS+.

LDAP.

OpenID.

For web and cloud SSO, organizations commonly use OpenID Connect (OIDC), built atop OAuth 2.0, to federate identity between an Identity Provider (IdP) and cloud Service Providers. Kerberos is primarily used for on-prem Windows domains, TACACS+ is for network device admin, and LDAP is a directory protocol?not a modern web SSO protocol. OIDC provides standardized tokens and flows tailored to browser/mobile/cloud apps.

Within Susan?s organization, which of the following zero-trust control plane components utilizes rules to determine access to a service based on factors such as the security status of users? systems, threat data, and comparable information?

Threat scope reduction

Secured zones.

Policy-driven access control.

Adaptive authorization.

Zero trust relies on a policy engine that evaluates contextual inputs?user identity and role, device posture/compliance, sensitivity of the resource, and threat intelligence?to render allow/deny/step-up decisions. This ?policy-driven access control? is the decision core of the control plane; adaptive authorization is a technique it may apply, but the governing component making the rule-based decisions is the policy engine.

In Isaac?s physical penetration test, what objective must he achieve in order to bypass an access control vestibule?

He needs to acquire the individual?s access PIN.

He needs to persuade an individual to allow him to follow them through a single door.

He needs to persuade an individual to allow him to follow them through two doors in a row.

He needs to acquire an individual?s access card.

An access control vestibule (mantrap) uses two interlocked doors so that only one person can pass through at a time; the first door must close before the second opens. To tailgate successfully, an attacker must social-engineer their way through both doors in sequence; following through just one door won?t bypass the interlock.

In Valentine?s quest to identify if an intruder has gained access to a secured file server, which of the following techniques, when combined with a data loss prevention tool, will prove most effective in detecting data exfiltration?

A honeytoken.

A honeyfile.

A honeypot.

A honeypot.

A honeyfile (e.g., a decoy document with a distinct fingerprint) integrates perfectly with DLP, which can fingerprint and alert on the exact file as soon as it?s copied, emailed, or exfiltrated. Honeytokens are useful beacons embedded in data, but the scenario specifically describes file-based exfil monitoring?where a DLP-watched honeyfile provides precise, actionable detection with minimal noise.

Among the given options, which sensor type is frequently utilized for the detection of footsteps?

Infrared.

Microwave.

Pressure.

Ultrasonic.

Pressure sensors (e.g., pressure mats or ground vibration/strain sensors) detect the force or vibrations produced by footsteps and are commonly used to sense people walking across a threshold or perimeter. Infrared and microwave sensors detect heat or motion in a broader sense and can be prone to environmental noise; ultrasonic detects reflected sound waves but is less targeted to the specific signature of footsteps.

What kind of tool has Charles implemented by setting up an RDP server on a segregated network segment, placing a file named ?passwords.xlsx? on it, and configuring his IPS and DLP systems to monitor for any instance of that file leaving the network segment?

A honeyfile.

A red flag.

A SQL trap.

A trigger file.

A honeyfile is a decoy document designed to be tempting to intruders and uniquely identifiable (e.g., by content fingerprint or watermark). Placing it in an isolated segment and monitoring IPS/DLP for any movement or exfiltration of that specific file provides high-fidelity detection of unauthorized access and data theft attempts, with minimal false positives compared to generic alerts.

As Juan?s organization develops their zero-trust model, which statement regarding network security zones is accurate among the following options?

Communication receives additional security in low-trust zones.

Communication receives less security in high-trust zones.

All zero-trust networks are considered secured zones.

All communication is secured, regardless of the network security zone it occurs in.

Zero trust eliminates implicit trust in any network segment, treating every request as untrusted until verified. Controls such as strong authentication, authorization, encryption, and continuous monitoring are applied to all communications end-to-end, independent of whether traffic traverses a ?high-? or ?low-trust? zone. The model focuses on identity, device posture, and policy?not the location of the traffic.

Among the given options, which one is typically NOT considered a common element in adaptive authentication for zero trust?

Where the user is logging in from.

If the device is configured correctly.

Whether the user has logged in recently from another device.

What device the user is logging in from.

Adaptive (risk-based) authentication primarily evaluates context signals such as geolocation, device type/fingerprint, device posture/compliance, network/IP reputation, and time-of-day to decide whether to grant, deny, or step-up authentication. While some systems track ?known devices,? simply checking whether a user logged in ?recently from another device? is not a standard, core signal used to drive policy decisions in zero trust frameworks. The other options map directly to common, high-value risk inputs in adaptive auth.

What is the primary cybersecurity objective that is primarily supported by Alex’s configuration of full-disk encryption for the laptops issued by his organization to employees?

Authenticity.

Confidentiality

Availability.

Integrity.

Full-disk encryption protects data at rest from unauthorized access if a device is lost or stolen, directly supporting confidentiality.

In order to enforce a physical access control scheme that incorporates both knowledge-based and possession-based factors, which of the following solutions would satisfy Hrant’s organization’s requirement?

Security guards and access badges.

Keys and access control vestibules.

Access badges and PINs.

Security guards and access control vestibules.

A possession factor (badge) plus a knowledge factor (PIN) constitutes two-factor authentication for physical access.

Which operating system is frequently linked to secure enclaves?

iOS.

Windows.

Linux.

Android.

Apple devices include the Secure Enclave (SEP), a hardware?based secure coprocessor used by iOS/iPadOS/macOS for key handling and biometrics, commonly referred to as a ?secure enclave.?

To authenticate users as part of her AAA implementation, what steps does Christina need to take?

Match users to roles and ensure that rights are assigned.

Conduct biometric enrollments for every user.

Ensure that users provide an identity and one or more authentication factors.

Use identity proofing for each user she creates.

Authentication verifies identity using credentials (username plus one or more factors). Role assignment is authorization; identity proofing is an account lifecycle step, not the act of authentication.

When it comes to implementing an authentication framework for his wireless network, which option is the MOST frequently employed method for wireless network authentication according to common practice?

LDAP.

Kerberos.

EAP.

MS-CHAP.

EAP (often via 802.1X with RADIUS) is the standard framework used for enterprise Wi?Fi authentication. LDAP and Kerberos may be back-end directories/ticketing, and MS?CHAP is legacy.

During a gap analysis, which specific information is examined and assessed?

Compensating controls and the controls they are replacing.

Control objectives and controls intended to meet the objectives.

Security procedures and the policies they are designed to support.

Physically separate networks and their potential connection points.

Gap analysis compares the current control state to required control objectives, identifying missing or insufficient controls needed to meet those objectives.

In Casey’s ongoing efforts to enhance the security of her datacenter, she opts to implement access badges. Which technique can offer the highest level of confidence that an attacker will be unable to gain access even if they possess a stolen or cloned access badge?

Use barcode-based badges.

Use barcode-based badges.

Include a picture of the user on the badge.

Require a PIN along with the badge.

Combining a possession factor (badge) with a knowledge factor (PIN) creates two-factor authentication, defeating stolen/cloned badges alone.

Annie has recently deployed a video surveillance system for her organization. What is the primary factor responsible for generating significant ongoing expenses in the case of an unmonitored video surveillance system?

Security guards.

The ongoing cost of storage.

Camera maintenance.

Licensing.

Unmonitored systems continuously record, requiring substantial on-prem or cloud storage to meet retention policies?often the largest recurring cost.

Theresa is worried that an unforeseen issue might cause her scheduled maintenance window to exceed the allotted time. Which element of the CIA triad does her concern primarily relate to?

Accessibility.

Availability.

Integrity.

Criticality.

Extending a maintenance window risks longer downtime or service unavailability, directly affecting the availability component of the CIA triad.

What is the benefit that microwave sensors offer in comparison to infrared sensors?

They are cheaper than infrared sensors.

They can penetrate some types of walls.

They do not interfere with sensitive equipment.

They can detect heat signatures.

Microwave sensors emit RF energy that can pass through certain non-metallic materials and don?t require line of sight, unlike infrared which detects heat/IR and is line-of-sight.

To safeguard her organization’s backup generator against both accidental and intentional vehicular impacts, what measures should Alaina consider installing near the generator, which is situated outside the building in close proximity to a parking lot?

A chain-link fence.

An access control vestibule.

Bollards.

A speed bump.

Crash-rated bollards are designed to stop vehicles and protect fixed assets like generators. Fences and speed bumps don?t reliably prevent vehicle impacts; vestibules are for building entry.

Question: Brandon intends to implement a detective control to address physical security threats. Among the following options, which one aligns with his requirements?

Bollards.

Lighting.

Video surveillance.

Fencing.

Detective controls identify or record events after they occur. CCTV/video surveillance detects and documents activity, whereas bollards, lighting, and fencing are primarily preventive/deterrent controls.

What are the required steps for John to transmit his public key to another user?

The key must be signed, then sent via email or other means.

The key must be sent using Diffie?Hellman.

The key must be sent using RSA.

The key can simply be sent via email or other means.

Public keys are intended for open distribution; they can be shared over ordinary channels. Signing with a CA (certificate) or out?of?band verification can add authenticity, but it?s not required merely to send a public key.

As Jill explains open public ledgers for a blockchain?based system, what should she state about access to the ledger?

Anyone can join at any time.

Members must be added by a vote of more than 51% of current members.

Ledgers are public but membership is private and creator?controlled.

Members must be added by a vote of all current members.

Open (permissionless) public blockchains allow any participant to read and submit transactions or participate in consensus per protocol rules, unlike permissioned systems that restrict membership.

To safeguard against data exposure if a device is stolen when locked or off, which encryption offers the highest assurance?

Full?disk encryption.

Volume?level encryption.

File?level encryption.

Partition?level encryption.

FDE encrypts the entire storage device, ensuring all data (including swap/temp files) is protected at rest. Volume/partition encryption leaves other areas unprotected, and file encryption can miss system artifacts.

Isaac worries that short passwords could be cracked if their hashes are leaked. Which solution increases hash resistance without requiring longer user passwords?

Implement pass?the?hash algorithms.

Use a collision?resistant hashing algorithm.

Implement key?stretching techniques.

Encrypt passwords rather than hashing them.

Key?stretching deliberately slows verification to impede offline cracking while preserving usability. Simply choosing a collision?resistant hash (like SHA?256) without stretching is still too fast; passwords should be salted and processed with a slow KDF.

To enable customer service reps to verify identities without full data access, which obfuscation method should Rachel choose?

Data masking.

Hashing.

Steganography.

Masking hides portions of sensitive fields (e.g., showing only the last 4 digits) so staff can validate users while minimizing exposure. Hashing is one?way transformation not suitable for human verification; steganography hides data within other media.

Which crucial encryption feature is NOT provided by symmetric encryption?

Authentication.

Confidentiality.

Nonrepudiation.

Integrity.

Symmetric crypto provides confidentiality and, when paired with MACs, integrity and mutual authentication of ?someone with the key.? Nonrepudiation requires unique signer identity (private keys), which symmetric keys cannot provide because all parties share the same secret.

In a certificate chain, which component assumes the role of the root of trust?

A hardened hardware device.

A TPM.

A wildcard certificate.

A root certificate.

The root CA certificate anchors the trust chain and is pre?trusted in clients? trust stores. Intermediates and end?entity certs are validated by chaining back to this trusted root.

What type of certificate should Valerie utilize to manage multiple subdomains, such as sales.example.com and support.example.com, for her website?

A root of trust certificate.

A wildcard certificate.

A CRL certificate.

A self?signed certificate.

Wildcard certificates (e.g., *.example.com) are issued by a CA and are trusted by browsers to secure many subdomains under one parent domain, simplifying management versus separate individual certs.

Within a CA (Certificate Authority) hierarchy, what specific role does a subordinate CA fulfill?

Subordinate CAs provide control over certificate issuance while avoiding the cost of being a root CA.

Subordinate CAs issue certificates based on subdomains.

Subordinate CAs validate root CA activities to ensure auditability.

Subordinate CAs review certificate signing requests before forwarding them to the root CA.

In a PKI, a subordinate (intermediate/issuing) CA is delegated by a root CA to validate identities and issue end?entity certificates, giving organizations operational control over issuance and policy while the highly protected root stays offline. They don?t merely forward CSRs or audit the root, and their scope isn?t limited to ?subdomains.?

In public?key encryption, which key is used to decrypt information sent by another party?

The sender?s public key.

The recipient?s private key.

The sender?s private key.

The recipient?s public key.

The sender encrypts with the recipient?s public key; only the recipient?s corresponding private key can decrypt, ensuring confidentiality for that recipient.

Rick sees a certificate labeled *.example.com. What kind of certificate is this and why is it used?

A self?signed certificate used for multiple subdomains.

A self?signed certificate used for testing purposes.

A wildcard certificate used for testing purposes.

A wildcard certificate used for multiple subdomains.

A wildcard certificate with a leading asterisk covers the parent domain?s subdomains (e.g., app.example.com, mail.example.com), reducing the need for separate certs.

Lucca finds two users share the same password but their hashes don?t match. Which password?hash security technique is he encountering?

Password mismatching.

Password encryption.

Salting.

Hash rotation.

Unique per?password salts ensure identical passwords generate different hashes, defeating rainbow tables and simple hash lookups.

At what time is data on a drive using full?disk encryption MOST vulnerable?

During the system boot process.

When the system is logged in and in use.

When the system is being shut down.

When the system is off.

Once authenticated, the disk is mounted and data is available in plaintext to the OS and apps; malware or attackers with access can read it. When powered off, data remains encrypted.

What caution should Olivia?s team give about using self?signed certificates in a test environment to save costs?

Self?signed certificates cannot be used for external users to support SSL.

Certificate root?of?trust validation attempts will fail if implemented.

Browsers will not allow self?signed certificates when browsing sites.

Self?signed certificates cannot be used for internal users to support SSL.

Public users? browsers won?t trust self?signed certs because there?s no public CA chain, so they?re unsuitable for external?facing services (users see warnings). They can be used internally if trust anchors are deployed.

Jacob wants to make a weak password harder to crack during a brute?force attack by increasing the effort required to test keys. What technique is used?

Key rotation.

Master keying.

Passphrase armoring.

Key stretching.

Key?stretching functions (PBKDF2, bcrypt, scrypt, Argon2) add computational cost through iterations/memory hardness so each guess is slower, dramatically reducing brute?force speed without requiring users to change their password length.

When generating a certificate signing request (CSR), which item is NOT typically included?

The organization?s phone number.

The common name (CN) of the server.

The organization?s legal name.

A contact email address.

A CSR contains the public key and identifying fields like CN, organization, and contact email. Phone number is not a standard CSR attribute used by CAs.

What significant encryption?related solution do Diffie?Hellman and RSA both exemplify?

Key generation algorithms.

Certificate revocation protocols.

Rekeying.

Key exchange algorithms.

Diffie?Hellman is designed for key agreement; RSA is often used for key transport (e.g., exchanging a symmetric session key). Both solve the problem of securely establishing shared keys.

Jack knows there are three prevalent types of database encryption. Which option is NOT among the commonly used types?

Sensitivity?based encryption.

Transparent data encryption.

Field?level encryption.

Column?level encryption.

Common database encryption approaches are TDE (tablespace/database level), column?level, and field/record?level encryption. ?Sensitivity?based encryption? isn?t a standard database encryption type.

Which solution satisfies Frankie?s need to verify file integrity against an original copy while avoiding known security issues?

Hash both files with MD5 and compare.

Hash both files with SHA?256 and compare.

Hash both files with AES and compare.

Hash both files with SHA?1 and compare.

Integrity verification should use a collision?resistant hash; SHA?256 provides strong assurance. MD5 and SHA?1 have known weaknesses, and AES is not a hashing algorithm.

In Mohinder?s pursuit of utilizing contemporary and secure hashing algorithms to verify files against authentic originals, which hashing algorithm should he choose?

SHA-1.

AES-256.

SHA-256.

MD5.

SHA?256 is a modern, NIST?approved cryptographic hash commonly used for file integrity verification. MD5 and SHA?1 are vulnerable to collisions and are deprecated for new uses, and AES?256 is an encryption algorithm, not a hash.

Michelle wants the highest security for cloud?stored secrets and is willing to pay more. Which solution should she seek?

A shared cloud HSM.

A shared cloud TPM.

A dedicated hardware cloud TPM.

A dedicated hardware cloud HSM.

A dedicated, single?tenant cloud Hardware Security Module offers the strongest isolation and compliance posture for key generation and storage. TPMs are device?centric, and shared HSMs provide less isolation than dedicated appliances.

What should Renee do to ensure her logs provide nonrepudiation support?

Hash the logs and then digitally sign them.

Encrypt, then hash the logs.

Digitally sign the log file, then encrypt it.

Hash, then encrypt the logs.

Nonrepudiation requires a digital signature so authorship can be verified. The usual process is to hash the content and sign the digest with the private key; encryption is optional and addresses confidentiality, not nonrepudiation.

Tony appends a unique string before hashing users? passwords. Which technique is he using?

Steganography.

Salting.

Key stretching.

Tokenization.

A salt is a per?password random value combined with the password before hashing to defeat precomputed attacks and ensure identical passwords produce different hashes.

Which type of encryption is characterized by all participants sharing the same key?

Asymmetric encryption.

Symmetric encryption.

Universal encryption.

Shared hashing.

Symmetric cryptography uses a single shared secret key for both encryption and decryption, unlike asymmetric systems that use public/private key pairs.

To harden a password file against offline brute?force attacks, which technique is NOT commonly used?

Use of a pepper.

Use of a salt.

Use of a purpose?built password hashing algorithm.

Encrypting password plain text using symmetric encryption.

Passwords should be salted and hashed with slow KDFs (e.g., bcrypt, scrypt, Argon2) and optionally a server?side pepper. Storing encrypted plaintext passwords is poor practice and undermines security if the key is exposed.

Annie observes that her browser indicates the certificate of the website she is visiting as invalid, and she finds it listed on the CA?s certificate revocation list (CRL). Which option is NOT typically a cause for a certificate to be included on a CRL?

The certificate expired.

The CA is compromised.

The certificate?s private key was compromised.

The certificate was signed with a stolen key.

CRLs list certificates that are revoked before their natural expiration (e.g., key compromise, CA compromise, mis?issuance). Expired certificates are simply invalid due to time and do not need to be revoked or listed on a CRL.

Which specific information is required to accurately identify a certificate in an OCSP request?

The certificate?s serial number.

The identifier for the open public ledger entry.

The original requestor?s name.

The domain name.

OCSP responders look up revocation status using the certificate?s serial number (along with issuer details). Hostnames or requester names are not sufficient identifiers for the status check.

How can Jack guarantee the integrity of a file he emails to an organization with which he has no prior relationship?

Email the file size and original name in a separate email.

Send a hash of the file in a separate email.

Digitally sign the file.

Encrypt the file and send it to them.

A digital signature provides verifiable integrity and origin (nonrepudiation) using public?key cryptography. Separate emails with hashes can still be tampered with, and encryption alone does not prove integrity or origin.

Running ?openssl req -new -newkey rsa:2048 -nodes -keyout exampleserver.key -out exampleserver.csr? does what?

Created a certificate signing request.

Created a certificate revocation request.

Updated the OCSP record for a certificate.

Signed a certificate signing request.

The command generates a new RSA key pair and outputs a CSR file containing the public key and subject information to be submitted to a CA for signing.

What is the specific name of the specialized component within Jason’s Apple system dedicated to storing keys and biometric data, distinct from the main SoC?

A HSM.

A TPM.

A screened subnet.

A secure enclave.

Apple?s Secure Enclave Processor (SEP) is a separate coprocessor that securely handles key material and biometrics (Touch ID/Face ID), isolating secrets from the main CPU and OS for strong hardware?backed security.

With which technology is record-level encryption primarily and commonly associated?

Physical disks.

Databases.

Stored audio files.

Removable storage.

Record-level encryption encrypts individual rows/records, enabling fine?grained access control, selective key rotation, and minimized impact if a key is compromised?capabilities aligned with database systems rather than full disks or generic file storage.

Felicia needs to secure files both in transit between file shares and at rest, with per?user fine?grained control. Which encryption solution should she deploy?

Record?level encryption.

Partition encryption.

Full?disk encryption.

File encryption.

File?level encryption can encrypt individual files for specific users/groups and works with secure transport (e.g., SMB over TLS) to protect data in motion and at rest. Full?disk/partition encryption protects media at rest only and doesn?t provide per?file user granularity.

Carol wants to conceal data in her database but still reference the elements without exposing actual data. Which obfuscation option should she choose?

Encryption.

Data randomization.

Tokenization.

Data masking.

Tokenization replaces sensitive values with non?sensitive tokens that reference the originals stored securely elsewhere. It enables business processes to use token references while minimizing exposure to the real data.

Which salting approach provides the highest level of salt security?

Generate a unique salt for each hashed entry.

Set a salt value and store it in a database.

Set a salt value and store it in the program code.

Generate a unique salt value every time a value is used.

Per?entry random salts defeat precomputed rainbow tables and ensure identical passwords produce different hashes. Salts must be stored with the hash; static or code?embedded salts are weak, and changing salts per use would prevent verification.

Yasmine?s company requires her to submit a BitLocker key to a central repository that allows uploading but not reading and is protected by special permissions. What solution is this?

Private keys.

A hardware security module.

Key escrow.

Perfect forward secrecy.

Key escrow stores recovery keys in a tightly controlled repository with strict access and auditing. It often supports write?only submission to reduce exposure, enabling recovery only under authorized procedures.

What specific challenge necessitates the existence of key exchange mechanisms?

The number of keys required for symmetric encryption.

The need to exchange keys in a way that prevents others from obtaining a copy.

The need to securely return keys to their owner after they are traded.

The need to determine if a key is public.

The core problem is distributing shared secrets safely over untrusted channels. Key exchange protocols (e.g., Diffie?Hellman, TLS handshakes) allow two parties to agree on keys without exposing them to eavesdroppers.

Murali intends to apply a digital signature to a file. Which key does he need to perform the signing process?

The recipient?s private key.

His public key.

The recipient?s public key.

His private key.

Digital signatures are created with the signer?s private key and verified by others using the signer?s public key, providing integrity and nonrepudiation that the signer approved the content.

If an incorrect transaction is entered into a public blockchain ledger, what is the consequence?

The transaction is reversed and removed from the record.

A new transaction must be processed, and both transactions remain in the record.

An error block must be mined and labeled with the transaction number and error details.

The original transaction is updated and becomes the new record.

Blockchains are append?only and effectively immutable; you cannot delete or edit past entries. To correct an error, you add a compensating transaction, leaving a permanent auditable history of both.

For secure communication using asymmetric encryption among four individuals, how many key pairs are needed?

4

12

1

8

In public?key systems each participant has their own key pair (public and private). With four people, that?s four independent key pairs, enabling any pair to exchange messages using recipients? public keys.

Yariv accidentally emailed his private key (instead of his public key) to other users. What should he do to rectify the situation?

Continue to operate as normal as long as the private key was not used maliciously.

Immediately add his key to a CRL and reissue the key.

Ask the other users to delete any copies of his private key that they may have.

Create a new keypair and notify others that he has replaced his keypair.

A leaked private key must be considered compromised. Best practice is to revoke the associated certificate (CRL/OCSP) so it?s no longer trusted and then generate a new keypair/certificate for continued use. Deleting copies or just notifying others is insufficient without formal revocation.

As Scott develops an application, he intends to incorporate OCSP. What specific component will he implement?

Full?disk encryption.

A corrective control security process.

Certificate status checking.

Transport encryption.

OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) is used by clients and applications to check in real time whether a certificate has been revoked. It?s not for storage encryption or transport encryption; it specifically provides revocation status validation.

To securely store and manage secrets, Theresa is looking for a cloud?hosted security solution. What specific type of solution should she choose?

A KMS.

A TPM.

A CSR.

A CA.

A cloud Key Management Service (KMS) or secrets manager securely generates, stores, rotates, and controls access to cryptographic keys and secrets (API keys, DB passwords) with fine?grained IAM and audit logs. A TPM is on?device hardware, a CSR is just a request for a certificate, and a CA issues/signs certificates rather than managing app secrets.

On an e?commerce site, a credit card is shown as XXXX?XXXX?XXXX?1234. What form of data obfuscation is being used?

Data masking.

Hashing.

Tokenization.

Field encryption.

Masking hides part of a sensitive value in displays and logs while retaining a small portion (e.g., last four digits) for user recognition. It differs from hashing/tokenization, which replace the stored value for processing or integrity rather than simply obscuring the view.

For cloud customers, what is the role or significance of third?party certificates?

They provide control over cryptographic security for the customer.

They allow certificates for domains other than the provider?s domain.

They reduce costs by using bring?your?own certificates.

They allow more flexibility in TLS version selection.

Using customer?managed (third?party) certificates lets the customer choose the CA chain, enforce rotation and key?handling policies, and maintain trust relationships independent of the cloud provider?s default certs.

In record?level encryption for a database, what is the typical number of keys used?

One key per record.

One key per table.

One key per database.

One key per column.

Record?level encryption assigns a unique key per row (record), enabling fine?grained access control, selective revocation, and minimized blast radius if a single key is compromised. It?s more granular than table/database?level encryption.

Which hardware component is responsible for generating, storing, and managing cryptographic keys?

A CPU.

A NSA.

A TPM.

A CCA.

A Trusted Platform Module provides secure key generation, storage, and cryptographic operations isolated from the main CPU/OS, supporting measured/secure boot, disk encryption key protection, and attestation.

Which statement is accurate about using a decentralized blockchain to store data?

Only cryptocurrency?related data can be stored in a blockchain.

Blockchain data can be changed after being stored by the original submitter.

Blockchain ledgers are stored on central servers elected by participants.

No individual or group controls the blockchain.

A decentralized blockchain achieves consensus across many nodes, so no single party controls the ledger. It can store many kinds of data, and once recorded, entries are not retroactively modified; changes require new transactions.

What is the term for obfuscation where hidden information is concealed within an image Michelle found in an attacker?s file directory?

Image blocking.

Steganography.

Image hashing.

PNG warping.

Steganography hides data within other media (images, audio, video) so the presence of the message is concealed. Hashing produces fingerprints; ?blocking?/?warping? aren?t standard obfuscation terms in this context.

What is the name of the secure module used to validate and monitor each boot stage by verifying signed boot stages?

A cryptographic boot manager

A root of trust.

A boot hash.

A secure initiation manager.

Secure/verified boot relies on a hardware?anchored root of trust (often via TPM or equivalent) that stores trusted keys and validates each subsequent boot stage. This establishes a chain of trust from firmware to OS.

To verify the current status of a certificate, which protocol can validate certificate revocation?

OCRS.

OCRS.

OCSP.

TLS.

The Online Certificate Status Protocol lets clients query a CA?s responder to learn whether a certificate is good, revoked, or unknown in near real time, avoiding the delay of downloading full CRLs.

To enhance the security of network traffic, which cryptographic protocol is commonly used to integrate encryption into existing protocols?

SSH.

TLS.

S/MIME.

MPLS.

Transport Layer Security is designed to add confidentiality and integrity to application protocols (e.g., HTTPS, SMTPS/STARTTLS, FTPS). SSH is primarily for remote shell/tunneling, S/MIME secures email content, and MPLS is a routing/labeling technology, not encryption.

Which of the following encryption algorithms is currently recommended as a modern encryption algorithm for an organization?

SHA1.

AES?256.

DES.

Blowfish.

AES is the NIST?approved standard for symmetric encryption; AES?256 provides strong security and broad hardware acceleration and library support. SHA?1 is a weak hash (not encryption), DES is obsolete, and Blowfish is older and less common than AES today.

Which two fundamental characteristics serve as defining features for blockchain ledgers?

They are unique to each participant and are atomic.

They are immutable and nontransferable.

They are shared and immutable.

They are shared and can be modified by a vote among all participants.

Blockchains maintain a distributed (shared) ledger replicated across many nodes, and entries are append?only (effectively immutable) because each block is cryptographically linked to the previous one and protected by consensus. You don?t edit existing records; you add new transactions that supersede prior state.

In a zero?trust environment, what specific function does the policy engine serve?

It creates new administrative policies based on user behavior.

It suggests new policies based on usage patterns for adoption.

It enforces policies by monitoring connections between clients and servers.

It grants access based on policies created by administrators and on security systems data.

The policy engine makes the real?time allow/deny decision using admin?defined rules and contextual signals (identity, device posture, risk/threat intel). Enforcement is done by the policy enforcement point (PEP); the engine decides, the PEP applies.

As Ujamaa conducts a gap analysis, what will he MOST accurately analyze?

Which services are not configured properly.

Whether current patches are installed on all systems.

Legal requirements versus the security program.

The security program as implemented versus best practices.

Gap analysis compares the existing program to a desired baseline (standards, frameworks, or best practices) to reveal where the implementation falls short. Specific misconfigurations or patch status are inputs, not the overarching focus.

By incorporating ticket?granting tickets into the authentication process, which widely used authentication service has Lucca implemented?

Kerberos.

MS?CHAP.

EAP.

TACACS+

Ticket?granting tickets (TGTs) are the hallmark of Kerberos. Clients obtain a TGT from the KDC and use it to request service tickets without repeatedly sending passwords.

Which process assesses control objectives to find where controls fail to meet those objectives?

A penetration test.

A risk analysis.

A Boolean analysis.

A gap analysis.

Gap analysis compares the current control state to required objectives or best practices, identifying missing or inadequate controls so remediation plans can be prioritized.

Wayne wants systems to assert identities as part of AAA. Which option is MOST frequently used to identify both individuals and systems?

Certificates.

Smartcards.

Usernames.

Tokens.

X.509 certificates provide strong, scalable identity for both users and machines (mutual TLS, device auth). Smartcards use certificates but are user?centric; usernames/tokens alone don?t provide cryptographic proof of identity.

Which statement is false regarding a secure cryptographic hash system?

Hashes are commonly used to verify the integrity of files.

Hashes generate a fixed?length output.

Hashes may generate the same output for multiple inputs.

Hashes are a one?way function.

A secure hash should be collision?resistant?meaning it should be computationally infeasible to find two different inputs with the same hash. In practice collisions are theoretically possible, but in a secure system this outcome should be effectively unattainable; thus stating it as a normal property is false.

Christina wants picture ID badges that can be read wirelessly by a reader to control facility access. Which badge technology is best?

NFC access badges.

Wi?Fi?enabled access badges.

Bluetooth?enabled access badges.

RFID access badges.

Physical access systems typically use passive RFID cards (e.g., 125 kHz Prox or 13.56 MHz smartcards) for contactless reads. NFC is a related subset, but ?RFID access badges? is the standard term for building access credentials.

When Julia aims to identify the presence of an intruder within a space using a sensor system, which option is typically NOT employed for this purpose?

Infrared sensors.

Ultrasonic sensors.

Pressure sensors.

Microwave sensors.

Area presence detection commonly relies on IR, microwave, or ultrasonic motion sensors. Pressure sensors are normally used as point or perimeter controls (e.g., pressure mats) that trigger only when stepped on, not for general open?space presence detection.

For Christina, who anticipates the need for occasional exceptions to security practices, which solution offers the highest flexibility as a physical security control?

Video surveillance.

Security guards.

Access control vestibules.

Access badges.

Human guards can verify identity, apply judgment, and handle exceptions or special cases in real time (e.g., contractors, deliveries). Mantraps and badge systems enforce rigid rules, and video surveillance is primarily detective, not flexible.

What type of physical security solution should Casey implement in order to thwart tailgating attacks on her datacenter?

Video surveillance.

Bollards.

An access control vestibule.

Access badges.

A mantrap/vestibule allows only one person to pass at a time and requires the first door to close before the second opens, effectively preventing tailgating or piggybacking. CCTV only records, bollards stop vehicles, and badges alone can be abused by tailgaters.

Among the options provided, which control is generally associated with the highest implementation costs?

Bollards.

Access control vestibules.

Security guards.

Access badges.

Access control vestibules (mantraps) require construction work, interlocked door hardware, sensors, access systems, and integration with alarms?high capital expense and installation complexity. Bollards and badges are comparatively inexpensive, and security guards mainly incur ongoing operational costs rather than high upfront implementation costs.

In an open office, Isaac wants intruder detection sensors that avoid excessive sensitivity and high costs. Which sensor is MOST suitable?

Infrared.

Pressure.

Microwave.

Ultrasonic.

Passive infrared (PIR) motion sensors are inexpensive, simple to deploy, and less prone to environmental interference than ultrasonic or microwave, making them a practical choice for general open-office intrusion detection without over?sensitivity or high cost.

When Valerie sees an authentication prompt while trying to access a file server in a zero-trust environment, which component is she interacting with?

A policy enforcement point.

The policy engine.

The trust manager.

A policy administrator.

The Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) is the gateway that challenges, collects credentials/posture, and enforces the allow/deny decision from the policy engine. It?s the user-facing component that triggers the authentication prompt.

In Anna?s warehouses, what is the primary detection purpose for microwave sensors?

Heat signatures.

Glass break.

Motion.

Pressure.

Microwave sensors detect motion via the Doppler effect and can sense movement through some materials. They do not read heat signatures (IR) nor pressure/glass break; thus they?re suited to motion detection in large indoor spaces.

For an AAA system protecting network devices, which protocol is commonly employed?

OpenID.

RADIUS.

SAML.

TANGENT.

RADIUS is a widely used AAA protocol for network equipment (switches, VPNs, Wi?Fi controllers) to centralize authentication, authorization, and accounting; OpenID/SAML address web SSO/federation rather than device admin access.

In a zero-trust architecture, what specific term denotes a device such as a laptop, desktop, or mobile device within the design?

A policy engine.

A service provider.

A policy application point.

A subject.

Zero trust models distinguish the ?subject? (the requesting entity?user, device, or service) from the ?resource? being accessed. Policy and enforcement components evaluate the subject?s identity, device posture, and context for each request.

By utilizing public keys, asymmetric encryption helps address which significant challenge related to encryption?

Key length.

Collision resistance.

Evil twins.

Key exchange.

Public?key cryptography solves the secure key distribution problem by letting anyone encrypt with a recipient?s public key while only the recipient can decrypt with their private key. This avoids sharing a secret over insecure channels.

Valerie intends to authenticate her systems using AAA. Which option is MOST suitable for system (machine-to-machine) authentication?

Certificate-based authentication.

Symmetric authentication.

PIN-based authentication.

Asymmetric authentication.

X.509 certificates (typically via mutual TLS) are the standard for strong machine identity in enterprise environments, enabling scalable, revocable, and auditable system-to-system authentication using public key infrastructure.

Which option is NOT commonly recognized as a control that emphasizes availability?

Redundant Internet connectivity.

Load balancers.

Disk encryption.

Uninterruptible power systems.

Redundant links, load balancers, and UPS directly increase availability and resilience. Disk encryption protects confidentiality of data at rest; it does not improve service uptime and availability.

In a zero-trust policy engine, which option is NOT typically a component for automated data- and event-driven policy management?

A SIEM.

EDR tools.

Infrared sensor data.

Threat feeds.

Automated policy often leverages telemetry from SIEM, EDR, and cyber threat intelligence feeds. Infrared sensor data (a physical security signal) is not a common input for network/app access decisions in a zero-trust policy engine.

In response to a request to implement a website allow list for users, what concern should Mahmoud raise to management?

Using an allow list for websites is easily bypassed.

Using an allow list for websites will take a lot of time to maintain.

Allow lists are overly permissive and likely to allow unwanted sites.

Allow lists cannot be used for websites.

Website allow lists are effective but operationally heavy: required domains, CDNs, update/licensing hosts, and new business tools must be continuously added. Missed entries break workflows, so the biggest realistic concern is maintenance overhead and potential service disruption if entries are incomplete.

According to change management best practices, what steps should Susan?s team take in response to the failure of the major patch release, which has resulted in a nonworking service?

Declare an outage.

Restore from backups to the previous version.

Uninstall the patch and validate service function.

Follow the documented backout plan.

Best practice is to immediately execute the preapproved, tested rollback (backout) plan, which restores the last known-good state, includes communication steps, and minimizes downtime and risk. The plan can involve restore/uninstall actions, but those should occur under the guidance of the documented procedure?not improvised during an outage.

What change management term describes the standardized processes an organization follows for every change?

A change plan.

Fixed operating procedures.

A backout plan.

Standard operating procedures.

SOPs codify the consistent, repeatable steps for planning, approving, implementing, validating, and documenting changes, ensuring uniformity and compliance across change events.

After an application restart following patching, what immediate step should Gary take in his change management documentation?

Documenting the change occurred.

Validation testing.

Vulnerability scanning.

Updating version control.

For the change record and audit trail, promptly note execution details (time, components, status). Validation testing should follow operationally, but the immediate documentation step is to record that the change was performed.

Which is typically NOT regarded as a significant concern related to downtime from patching and system updates?

Attackers compromising the system or service while it is offline.

Unexpected extended downtime.

Security systems or functions being offline during restart/shutdown.

Dependencies between systems or services related to downtime.

The main risks are availability and dependency issues (including security tools temporarily offline). Compromise while a system is offline is less realistic compared to these operational concerns.

With which critical change management process is a tool like Git most commonly associated?

Stakeholder analysis.

Standard operating procedures (SOPs).

Version control.

Having a backout plan.

Git is a VCS used to manage source code versions, branching/merging, and history?foundational to controlled, auditable changes.

Valerie is asked to introduce version control. Which option is NOT a common security?related rationale for implementing version control?

To ensure the proper version is deployed.

To track each contributor?s workload.

To help with change management.

To help with patching.

Security rationales include integrity and auditable change tracking (right version deployed, patch/version traceability). Tracking workload is a project management concern, not a security driver.

What capabilities does a root SSL (TLS) certificate possess?

Allow key stretching.

Authorize new CA users.

Remove a certificate from a CRL.

Generate a signing key and use it to sign a new certificate.

A root CA?s private key is used to sign child certificates (intermediate or end?entity), establishing trust chains. Key stretching is unrelated, CRL entries aren?t ?removed? by a cert, and ?authorizing new CA users? isn?t a certificate capability.

Which option is NOT typically a common concern in change management for legacy applications?

Lack of patches and updates.

Availability of third?party or consultant expertise.

Ongoing licensing costs.

Lack of vendor support.

Change?management risks for legacy apps center on patch availability, vendor support, and specialized expertise. Licensing cost is a financial concern, not a primary change?management risk.

Preparing for a change window, which activity should Alaina avoid restricting?

Modifying database configurations.

Patching.

Scaling clustered systems up or down.

Changing hostnames.

Capacity/auto?scaling keeps services stable and available and should remain allowed. The other actions are high?risk changes that are commonly restricted or tightly controlled.

Which change management process typically does NOT extensively involve stakeholders external to the IT organization?

The change approval process.

Determining the maintenance window.

Building the backout plan.

Impact analysis.

Backout (rollback) plan creation is largely a technical IT task; approvals, maintenance timing, and impact analysis usually require broader business/service owner input.

As part of Megan?s change management process, which option is MOST LIKELY to help assess the impact of a change?

A list of dependencies for impacted systems.

A backout plan.

An estimate of the downtime expected.

A list of stakeholders.

Impact analysis hinges on understanding upstream/downstream dependencies (databases, services, auth, integrations). Once dependencies are known, you can more accurately estimate downtime and coordinate stakeholders.

Greg aims to introduce a version control system to guarantee that changes are implemented safely for critical software. Which option is NOT typically a prevalent characteristic of version control systems for software source code?

Regression testing.

File locking.

Atomic operations.

Tagging and labeling.

Core VCS features include atomic commits, tagging/labeling of versions, and sometimes file locking/branching to coordinate edits. Regression testing is part of CI/CD or QA pipelines, not an intrinsic capability of version control itself.

To address the possibility of a failed change, what should Sally develop?

A backout plan.

A maintenance window.

A regression test.

An impact analysis.

A backout (rollback) plan defines the pre?tested steps to quickly and safely revert to a known?good state if the change fails, minimizing downtime and risk; maintenance windows, tests, and impact analysis support the change but don?t provide the actual recovery path.

Implementing an allow list for websites servers can access?what concern should Adam raise?

Allow lists can be difficult to manage and cause failures if needed sites aren?t added.

Allow lists do not prevent sites not on the list.

Allow lists are prone to error, allowing unwanted sites.

Allow lists cannot allow entire domains, creating overhead.

Allow lists are effective but operationally burdensome; missing an essential site (CDN, license server, update host) can break services, so governance and maintenance processes are critical.

When restarting a customer?facing production app for an urgent security patch, what is the primary technical concern?

Application configuration changes caused by the restart.

Lack of security controls during the restart.

Whether the patch will properly apply.

The downtime during the restart.

The most immediate operational risk with a production restart is service availability?any downtime impacts customers and SLAs. Teams plan maintenance windows, communications, and rollback to minimize and control that outage period.

To ensure the latest version of each component is deployed, which process is MOST beneficial for Joanna?

Allow and deny lists.

Dependency mapping.

Impact analysis.

Version control.

Version control systems track component versions and releases, enforce consistency across environments, and enable automated deployments of the correct, current builds?exactly what?s needed to ensure the latest components ship.

To mitigate unexpected dependency issues during an upcoming change, what practice should Amanda adopt?

Update organizational policies and procedures before the change.

Update functional diagrams before the change.

Validate the change in a test environment.

Document legacy applications that may create dependencies.

Testing in a representative staging/test environment surfaces hidden or complex dependency problems before production rollout, reducing risk far more effectively than documentation alone and enabling fixes or plan adjustments.